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AlekseyPX
3 years ago
11

In a weekly lottery, ten ping-pong balls numbered 0 to 9 are placed in each of six containers, and one ping-pong ball is drawn f

rom each container. To win the prize, a participant must correctly identify the ping-pong ball that is drawn from each of the six containers. If Juan played the lottery last week and didn’t win, what is the probability that he will win this week?
Mathematics
2 answers:
sukhopar [10]3 years ago
6 0
He will have a 1/531,441 chance of winning next week.

There are 10 balls in each container; for 6 containers, this gives us 10^6 = 1,000,000.  There is 1 correct combination of balls, so his chance the first week is 1/1,000,000.

The second week, 1 ball is removed from each container; this will give us 9^6 = 531,441 chances.  There is 1 correct combination, so he will have a 1/531,441 chance of winning.
Fynjy0 [20]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is <em>A. 1/1000000</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

Last week’s lottery has no effect on this week’s lottery.

In other words, last week’s lottery and this week’s lottery are independent events.

For this reason, the fact that Juan didn’t win last week’s lottery has no influence on the probability that he will win this week’s lottery.

In this week’s lottery, the drawing from each container is an independent event, so the probability that Juan will win this week is  

1/10  x  1/10 x 1/10 x 1/10 x 1/10 x 1/10 = <em>1/1000000</em>

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Simplify.
Vladimir [108]

Answer:

a. -3.78x-0.84

Step-by-step explanation:

To simplify, combine like terms. Because you're just adding them you don't have to change any signs. Add/subtract the terms with an x, that will give you your first number, then add/subtract the terms without an x to get your second number.

5 0
2 years ago
You are testing the claim that the mean GPA of night students is different from the mean GPA of day students. You sample 30 nigh
kirill [66]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a test of 2 independent groups. The population standard deviations are not known. Let μ1 be the mean GPA of night students and μ2 be the mean GPA of day students.

The random variable is μ1 - μ2 = difference in the mean GPA of night students and the mean GPA of day students.

We would set up the hypothesis.

The null hypothesis is

H0 : μ1 = μ2 H0 : μ1 - μ2 = 0

The alternative hypothesis is

H1 : μ1 ≠ μ2 H1 : μ1 - μ2 ≠ 0

This is a two tailed test.

Since sample standard deviation is known, we would determine the test statistic by using the t test. The formula is

(x1 - x2)/√(s1²/n1 + s2²/n2)

From the information given,

μ1 = 2.35

μ2 = 2.58

s1 = 0.46

s2 = 0.47

n1 = 30

n2 = 25

t = (2.35 - 2.58)/√(0.46²/30 + 0.47²/25)

t = - 1.8246

The formula for determining the degree of freedom is

df = [s1²/n1 + s2²/n2]²/(1/n1 - 1)(s1²/n1)² + (1/n2 - 1)(s2²/n2)²

df = [0.46²/30 + 0.47²/25]²/[(1/30 - 1)(0.46²/30)² + (1/25 - 1)(0.47²/25)²] = 0.00025247091/0.00000496862

df = 51

We would determine the probability value from the t test calculator. It becomes

p value = 0.0746

Since alpha, 0.05 < than the p value, 0.0746, then we would fail to reject the null hypothesis.

3 0
3 years ago
6n &lt; -12 pls show work​
dalvyx [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

6n < -12

6n/6 <-12/6 divide six on both sides

n < -2

5 0
3 years ago
Points P and Q belong to segment AB . If AB = a, AP = 2PQ = 2QB, find the distance: midpoints between AP QB
Digiron [165]

Answer: The distace between midpoints of AP and QB is \frac{a}{8}.

Step-by-step explanation: Points P and Q are between points A and B and the segment AB measures a, then:

AP + PQ + QB = a

According to the question, AP = 2 PQ = 2QB, so:

PQ = \frac{AP}{2}

QB = \frac{AP}{2}

Substituing:

AP + 2*(\frac{AP}{2}) = a

2AP = a

AP = \frac{a}{2}

Since the distance is between midpoints of AP and QB:

2QB = AP

QB = \frac{AP}{2}

QB = \frac{a}{2}*\frac{1}{2}

QB = \frac{a}{4}

MIdpoint is the point that divides the segment in half, so:

<u>Midpoint of AP</u>:

\frac{AP}{2} = \frac{a}{2}*\frac{1}{2}

\frac{AP}{2} = \frac{a}{4}

<u>Midpoint of QB</u>:

\frac{QB}{2} = \frac{a}{4}*\frac{1}{2}

\frac{QB}{2} = \frac{a}{8}

The distance is:

d = \frac{a}{4} - \frac{a}{8}

d = \frac{a}{8}

4 0
3 years ago
Help me with this pls
masha68 [24]

Answer:

x=65

Step-by-step explanation:

90 degree angle

90-25= 65

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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