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ANEK [815]
3 years ago
8

What is the sum of the geometric series in which a1 = −5, r = 3, and an = −405?

Mathematics
1 answer:
marysya [2.9K]3 years ago
3 0
An = a1 * r^(n-1)

-405 = -5*3^(n-1)

3^(n-1) = 81

3^4 = 81  so n-1 = 3  and n =  4

Sn  = S4  =  -5 (1 - 3^4)   / ( 1 - 3)   =  400 / -2 = -200 Answer
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PLEASE HELP!!! ITS TWO PARTS
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

$78, $79.20

Step-by-step explanation:

PART A: $60 times 1.3 = $78

you add 30% to 100% to get 130% since it is a mark up, and then you convert to a decimal by going to the left twice then multiplying by original price.

PART B

Since it is a discount you subtract 15 percent from 100, but then add back 5 percent since there is tax applied to get 90%, convert to decimal and multiply by original price to get $88 x .9 = $79.20

6 0
3 years ago
The quotient of h and 4 is 5 less than h
Genrish500 [490]

Answer:

h/4=h-5

Step-by-step explanation:

quotient means divide

less means subtract

is means equal

5 0
3 years ago
Is 1/2 gallon greater than 5/8 gallon?
GalinKa [24]

No 5/8 is bigger because half of 8 is 4 and 5 is greater than 4

7 0
3 years ago
7. In a state lottery, a player must choose 8 of the numbers from 1 to 40. The lottery commission then performs an experiment th
Vlad1618 [11]

Answer:a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)=1.3×10^-8

b) P(7 of the players number are drrawn)=3.33×10^-c) P(at least 6 of the players number were drawn)=1.84×10^-4

Step-by-step explanation:

Players has 8 combinations of numbers from 1-40. The outcome S contains all the combinations of 8 out of 40

a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)= 1/40/8= 1.3×10^-8

There are one in hundred million chances that the draw numbers are precisely the chosen ones.

b) Number of ways of drawing 78 selected numbers from 1-40=8×(40-7)

8×32

P(7 of the players number are drawn)=8×32/40 =3.33×10^-6.

There are approximately 300,000 chances that 7 of the players numbers are chosen

c) P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)= 32/2×(8/6) ways to draw.

P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)=P(all 8 chosen are drawn)+P(7 players numbers drawn)+P(6 chosen are drawn) = 1+ 8 x32/40/8 +[8\6 ×32/2]

P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn) = 1.84×10^-4.

There are approximately 5400chances that at least6 of the numbers drawn are chosen by the player.

5 0
3 years ago
1. 48 c = __qt
Scorpion4ik [409]
Number 1:
We know that 1 quart = 4 cups. That means we need to divide 48 by 4.
What is 48 / 4=12
Number 1 is D
Number 2
We know that oz =0.0625 pounds
Well we multiply 0.0625 by 92 and get 6
Number 2 is B
Number 3
We know that 1 yd = 3 ft
We have to multiply. 3*6=18 But we have to add that one 18+1=19
Number 3 is C
Number 4
We know that 6 pounds = 96 oz from earlier and half of a pound is 8  so that means we do 96+8=104
Number 4 is A

 Hope this really helped!
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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