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dybincka [34]
2 years ago
11

There are 12 inches (in.) in 1 foot (ft). Which expression can be used to find the number of inches in 2.5 feet?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Tasya [4]2 years ago
8 0
I think the correct answer is c
kupik [55]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the answer is c

Step-by-step explanation:

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Philip wants to know the weight of a book to within half a gram. His weighing scales only weigh to within 10 grammes.
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then (α + 1)(β + 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Confirm that f and g are inverses by showing that f(g(x)) = x and g(f(x)) = x.
maks197457 [2]
F(g(x)) = [(-7x-8)/(x-1) - 8} / [(-7x - 8)/(x-1) + 7] =

[(-7x - 8 - 8(x-1)) / (x-1)] / [(-7x - 8 + 7(x-1)) / (x-1)] = (-15x) / (-15) = x.

g(f(x)) = [-7*(x-8)/(x+7) - 8] / [(x-8)/(x+7) - 1] =

[(-7x + 56 -8*(x+7)) / (x+7)] / [(x - 8 - (x + 7)) / (x+7)] = (-15x) / (-15) = x.

So since f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) = x we can conclude that f and g are inverses.
5 0
2 years ago
A blackjack player at a Las Vegas casino learned that the house will provide a free room if play is for four hours at an average
marysya [2.9K]

Answer:

a) player’s expected payoff is $ 240

b) probability the player loses $1000 or more is 0.1788

c)  probability the player wins is 0.3557

d) probability of going broke is 0.0594

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Since there are 60 hands per hour and the player plays for four hours then the sample size is:

n = 60 * 4 = 240

The player’s strategy provides a probability of .49 of winning on any one hand so the probability of success is:

p = 0.49

a)

Solution:

Expected payoff is basically the expected mean

Since the bet is $50 so $50 is gained when the player wins a hand and $50 is lost when the player loses a hand. So

Expected loss =  μ

                        = ∑ x P(x)

                        = 50 * P(win) - 50 * P(lose)

                        = 50 * P(win) + (-50) * (1 - P(win))

                         = 50 * 0.49 - 50 * (1 - 0.49)

                        = 24.5 - 50 ( 0.51 )

                        = 24.5 - 25.5

                        = -1

Since n=240 and expected loss is $1 per hand then the expected loss in four hours is:

240 * 1 = $ 240

b)

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 110.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = −7.1/√117.6(0.51)

  = −7.1/√59.976

  = −7.1/7.744417

  =−0.916789

Here the player loses 1000 or more when he loses at least 130 of 240 hands so the wins is 240-130 = 110

Using normal probability table:

P(X≤110) = P(X<110.5)

             = P(Z<-0.916)

             = 0.1788

c)

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 120.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = 2.9/√117.6(0.51)

  = 2.9/√59.976

  = 2.9/7.744417

  =0.374463

Here the player wins when he wins at least 120 of 240 hands

Using normal probability table:

P(X>120) = P(X>120.5)

              = P(Z>0.3744)  

             =  1 - P(Z<0.3744)

             = 1 - 0.6443

             = 0.3557

d)

Player goes broke when he loses $1500

Using normal approximation of binomial distribution:

n = 240

p = 0.49

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.49 = 0.51

np = 240 * 0.49 = 117.6

nq = 240 * 0.51 = 122.5

both np and nq are greater than 5 so the binomial distribution can be approximated by normal distribution

Compute z-score:

z = x - np / √(np(1-p))

  = 105.5 - 117.6 / √117.6(1-0.49)

  = -12.1/√117.6(0.51)

  = -12.1/√59.976

  = -12.1/7.744417

  =−1.562416

Here the player loses 1500 or more when he loses at least 135 of 240 hands so the wins is 240-135 = 105

Using normal probability table:

P(X≤105) = P(X<105.5)

             = P(Z<-1.562)

             = 0.0594

7 0
3 years ago
PLZ HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLISET IF RIGHT!!!
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

72.5mph

Step-by-step explanation:

There is an easy way to work this. Divide the miles he drove by 2 so that you know how much he drove in 1/5 hours.

29/2= 14.5miles driven in 1/5 hours

Now, just multiply that number by 5 so that you know how many miles he drove in 5/5 hours (one full hour).

14.5*5= 72.5miles

5 0
2 years ago
Can someone please help meh with dis? I'll mark brainliest to the correct answer!! If yoo can thanks (also I suck at spelling so
Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

-0.6

Step-by-step explanation:

-2.1--0.6= 1 1/2

2 negatives make a positive

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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