1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Komok [63]
3 years ago
5

What is the only amendment to be repealed? Why was it repealed?

History
1 answer:
balu736 [363]3 years ago
4 0
The Eighteenth Amendment was the only amendment to be repealed, and was repealed by the ratification of the 21st amendment. It concerned the prohibition of alcohol.
You might be interested in
What was the effect of the Berlin Airlift?
Allushta [10]

Answer:

4The United States lost influence in the region.

8 0
3 years ago
The best reason why there are no major cities in the interior of australia?
Oliga [24]
Australia isnt a prosperous area. Or they dont want to like over populate or something around those lines.
5 0
3 years ago
What did mercenaries have to do with the decline of the Roman Empire?
Fed [463]

Answer:

Explanation: Supreme military discipline and training served as the foundation for the construction of the Roman Empire. However, when the Empire grew in size and began to fragment, the Western Empire could not maintain its superior military strength anymore. As a result, it began to rely on mercenary forces, typically composed of barbarians. The armies were not disciplined and had no loyalty to the Empire. Therefore, the military structure was unable to maintain its integrity. And as soon as that occurred, the political system came crashing down. At various points in antiquity, the mercenary soldiers would turn against the Romans and begin to demand or grab land for themselves. For example, Alaric, the Gothic ruler who eventually conquered Rome, was formerly a Roman mercenary leader before becoming king.

HOPE THIS HELPS

5 0
2 years ago
True or false: Even though lower-class Americans constitute a larger share of the American population today, their share of the
OLga [1]

Their share of the nation's income being much smaller than it was in 1970

is True.

In the 1970s , the lower class American's income was around 62 percent and

this has dropped to around 41 percent in recent times. The higher class

American's income however increased during the same period of time.

This is as a result of the increase in economic inequality of the country in

which the disparity between the income of the lower and higher class is very

wide.

Read more on brainly.com/question/19302129

8 0
3 years ago
True or false
xz_007 [3.2K]
Mmm my choice would be false....I'm not sure but it sounds right
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • European and american imperialism in the late nineteenth century was stimulated by
    10·1 answer
  • Which best describes a classical period in history?
    15·2 answers
  • Document 8b
    12·1 answer
  • 3 ways that German and Italian unification were diffrent
    9·1 answer
  • How did the operations of the Virginia Company bring success to England?
    11·2 answers
  • What did Britain and france do under the appeasement policy
    9·1 answer
  • What is nationalism? (PS, I'm going to search for plagiarism, so do NOT copy & paste) (Double PS, I'll give Brainliest for t
    13·1 answer
  • From today and know they all will be black squad member​
    7·2 answers
  • The American Revolution was caused by all of the following EXCEPT
    5·1 answer
  • multiple choice: the differences in the economic development of the mid-atlantic, new england, and southern colonies can best be
    6·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!