Answer:
a-1) Pv = 52549
a-2) Pv = 56822
b-1) Fv = 77570
b-2 Fv = 83878
Explanation:
b-1) Future value:
S= Sum of amount of annuity=?
n=number of fixed periods=5 years
R=Fixed regular payments=13200
i=Compound interest rate= .081 (suppose annualy)
we know that ordinary annuity:
S= R [(1+i)∧n-1)]/i
= 13200[(1+.081)∧5-1]/.081
=13200(1.476-1)/.081
= 13200 * 5.8765
S = 77570
a.1)Present value of ordinary annuity:
Formula: Present value = C* [(1-(1+i)∧-n)]/i
=13200 * [(1-(1+.081)∧-5]/.081
=13200 * (1-.6774)/.081
=13200 * (.3225/.081)
=52549
a.2)Present value of ordinary Due:
Formula : Present value = C * [(1-(1+i)∧-n)]/i * (1+i)
= 13200 * [(1- (1+.081)∧-5)/.081 * (1+.081)
= 13200 * 3.9822 * 1.081
= 56822
b-2) Future value=?
we know that: S= R [(1+i)∧n+1)-1]/i ] -R
= 13200[ [ (1+.081)∧ 5+1 ]-1/.081] - 13200
= 13200 (.5957/.081) -13200
= (13200 * 7.3544)-13200
= 97078 - 13200
= 83878
Answer:
b. work to identify root causes, not just symptoms.
Explanation:
The main thing on which Joseph Juran focused was on quality, how it could be improved in planning, and performing properly.
This provided for the quality controls, plans, improvements which could be made, but it did not work on finding the causes behind the lack that why it could not be achieved.
Accordingly it did not in manner focused on the finding the symptoms or root causes.
As it was focused on the action of now what can be done.
I would recommend for this customer a mix of investment grade bonds and cash or cash equivalents.
An individual with an investment objective of capital preservation should be investing in a mix of investment grade bonds and cash or cash equivalents lower risk capital appreciation vehicles, such as large-cap common stock, should also be considered. The other choices noted are too risky for a risk-averse investor.
Fixed earnings is a funding method focused on the maintenance of capital and earnings. It commonly includes investments like government and corporate bonds, CDs, and cash marketplace finances. fixed income can offer a consistent stream of earnings with less risk than stocks.
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Answer: A. The other asset group should be tested for an impairment loss before goodwill is tested.
Explanation:
According to the IFRS standards, it is important and necessary to revalue your assets according to their net realizable value, i.e, assets should be reported after deducting accumulated depreciation or amortization in the case of goodwill. In the case of inventory, NRV should be calculated by estimating impairments.
The other asset groups are tested to check for impairment loss and later the goodwill is tested.
The loss on the disposal of the car is $-16,200.
The first step is to determine the total depreciation on the car.
Depreciation expense = percentage depreciation x cost of the asset
$37,000 x 0.1 = $3700
The second step is to determine the book value of the car = cost of the car - depreciation
$37,000 - $3700 = $33,300.
The book value is greater than the selling price of the car, so there was a loss on the sale. The third step is to determine the gain on the sale.
Loss = $17,100 - $33,300 = $-16,200
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