f(x)=(x+a)/b
or bf(x)=x+a
let f(x)=y
by=x+a
flip x and y
bx=y+a
or y=bx-a
or f^{-1}(x)=bx-a
also g(x) is inverse of f(x)
bx-a=cx-d
so b=c,a=d
again let g(x)=y
y=cx-d
flip x and y
x=cy-d
cy=x+d
y=(x+d)/c
or g^{-1}(x)=(x+d)/c
also f(x) is inverse of g(x)
so (x+a)/b=(x+d)/c
so a=d,b=c
so in either case a=d,b=c
take b=c=1
a=d=2
f(x)=(x+2)/1=x+2
g(x)=1x-2=x-2
so f(x) and g(x) are two parallel lines f(x) with y- intercept=1 and slope 0
g(x) with y-intercept -2 and slope 0
if we take b=c=2,a=d=3
f(x)=(x+3)/2=x/2+3/2
g(x)=2x-3
here f(x) is of slope 1/2 and y-intercept 3/2
g(x) is of slope 2 and y intercept -3
part 3.
f(f(x))=g((x+a)/b)=c[(x+a)/b]-d=(c/b)(x+a)-d
Dhdidbfvuddjendjdifbdkdbfjdidnd it’s 8
Answer:
there’s no image
Step-by-step explanation:
