3 years ago

Which of the following is 38/6 converted to a mixed number

1 answer:

7 0

6 goes into 38 6 times (6 * 6 = 36). We can bring out a whole number of 6 into our mixed number. Now, we have 2/6 left over. That can be reduced to 1/3. Your mixed number is $6\frac{1}{3}$

You might be interested in

Math question, any help is appreciated :)

natka813 [3]

Answer:

B and D

Step-by-step explanation:

A simplifies to a linear equation

C is a cubic

The other 2 are quadratic and can be solve using the formula

8 0

4 years ago

What is <br> y=5x+3 -2x-4y=10

kondor19780726 [428]

Answer:

y=-2 x=-1

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Hey who can solve this

Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

I need help on that too help pls

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

How do you round 0.955 to the nearest tenth

Alecsey [184]

Answer:

1.0

Step-by-step explanation:

If you have any questions feel free to ask in the comments

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A Nevada roulette wheel had 38 pockets, labeled as 0 00 1 2 3 ... 35 36. One bet is single number. If you bet $1 on a number (an

slavikrds [6]

Answer:

-0.0526

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X be the random variable denoting the net gain(in dollars) for a single trial(one bet).

Assuming that each number in the wheel is equally likely, probability of the outcome being a victory is $\frac{1}{38}$ and probability of failure is $\frac{37}{38}$ . For a win, X takes value 35 and for a loss X takes value -1. So the model is,

$P(X=35) = \frac{1}{38}$

$P(X=-1) = \frac{37}{38}$

$P(X=i) = 0 \;if\; i \neq 38, i\neq -1$

The mean for one bet is $E(X) = \sum xP(X=x) = 35\times\frac{1}{38} - 1\times\frac{37}{38} = -0.0526$

3 0

3 years ago