The financial aid that is given based on the financial status and background of the family of a person is termed as Need Based Aid. Need Based Aid and Need based scholarships are offered by a wide range of institutions to help financially weak families and individuals.
Therefore, the correct answer is
Option D) Need Based
Answer:
WACC = 12.040%
Explanation:
WACC represents weighted average cost of all sources of financing. In the question there are three sources of finance 1) Equity 2) Preferred Stock 3) Debt.
1) Equity: The firm intends to raise $ 320,000 from equity out of total financing of $ 570,000 e.g. 56% of total financing comes from Equity. Thus multiplying the cost of equity 14.7% (given) with ratio of equity financing, we get to weighted average cost of equity of 8.253%.
2) Debt: The firm is raising $ 230,000 from debt e.g. 40% of total financing. The proportion of debt is multiplied by post tax cost of debt as the interest expense is deductible expense for tax purposes in most of the jurisdiction. Therefore we reduce the cost of debt with element of (1 - tax rate), thus we get to 8.325% = 11.1 (1 - 25%) as total cost of debt. In order to get weighted average cost of debt we multiply this post tax cost of debt with ratio of debt financing 40%, thus weighted average cost of debt is 8.325 * 40% = 3.359%
3) Preferred Stock: The firm is also raising finance from preferred stock having cost of 12.2%. Proportion of financing from preferred stock is 4% in total mix of financing, thus weighted average cost of preferred stock is 12.2% * 4% = 0.428%.
Now adding weighted average cost of all three sources of funding, we get WACC: 8.253% + 3.359% + 0.428% = 12.040%
Answer:
Explanation:when cash comes In bills hit you hard
Answer:
Option (C) is correct.
Explanation:
Variable overhead per unit:
= Variable overhead ÷ Total units produced
= $70,000 ÷ 10,000
= $7 per unit
Fixed overhead per unit:
= Fixed overhead ÷ Total units produced
= 120,000 ÷ 10,000
= $12 per unit
Total product cost:
= Direct materials + Direct labor + Variable overhead + Fixed overhead
= 10 + 6 + 7 + 12
= $35 per unit
This is what i found Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier
2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15
million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925
million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37
million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925
million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital
requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a
financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to
credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank
will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can
also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from
8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael
& Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan
default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the
probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan
yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
