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Fudgin [204]
3 years ago
9

Hello help pls :3333333 I only need the answer to part B which asks about the mean

Mathematics
2 answers:
statuscvo [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:9

Step-by-step explanation:

Nastasia [14]3 years ago
5 0
Add all the numbers up

0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4

= 10

Divided 10 by 5 because there are 5 numbers

10 / 5 = 2

Therefore the mean will be 2
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A negative correlation has a/an?
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Answer:

A negative correlation means that there is an inverse relationship between two variables - when one variable decreases, the other increases. The vice versa is a negative correlation too, in which one variable increases and the other decreases.

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
Maths- please help me with this Q
Reika [66]

Step-by-step explanation:

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18 shirts for 279.45 what is the unit rate of the shirts?
adelina 88 [10]
The answer is 15.525. All you have to do is divide 279.45 by 18 which gives you 15.525.
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3 years ago
A box of oatmeal must contain 16 oz. The machine that fills the oatmeal boxes is set so that, on the average, a box contains 16.
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

29. 15.87%

30.  4.75%

31. 0.62%

32. probability cannot be calculated (0%)

Step-by-step explanation:

We have that the formula of the normal distribution is:

z = (x - m) / sd

where x is the value we are going to evaluate, m is the mean and sd is the standard deviation

x = 16 and m = 16.5

when sd = 0.5

z = (16 - 16.5) /0.5

z = -1

Now when looking in the z table, we have that the corresponding value is 0.1587, that is, the probability is 15.87%

when sd = 0.3

z = (16 - 16.5) /0.3

z = -1.67

Now when looking in the z table, we have that the corresponding value is 0.0475, that is, the probability is 4.75%

when sd = 0.2

z = (16 - 16.5) /0.2

z = -2.5

Now when looking in the z table, we have that the corresponding value is 0.0062, that is, the probability is 0.62%

when sd = 0

z = (16 - 16.5) / 0

z = infinity

probability cannot be calculated

4 0
3 years ago
After flying between two black holes, our engines have been a bit janky. The probability of one of any of our 8 power couplings
otez555 [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We would apply the formula for binomial distribution. It is expressed as

P(x = r) = nCr × q^(n - r) × p^r

Where

p represents probability of success

q represents probability of failure.

n represents number of sample.

From the information given,

p = 10% = 10/100 = 0.1

q = 1 - q = 1 - 0.1 = 0.9

n = 8

1)The probability that none fails is

P(x = 0) = 8C0 × 0.9^(8 - 0) × 0.1^0

P(x = 0) = 0.43

2) The probability that one fails is

P(x = 1) = 8C1 × 0.9^(8 - 1) × 0.1^1

P(x = 1) = 0.38

3) The probability that four fails is

P(x = 4) = 8C4 × 0.9^(8 - 4) × 0.1^4

P(x = 4) = 0.0046

3) The probability that six fails is

P(x = 6) = 8C6 × 0.9^(8 - 6) × 0.1^6

P(x = 6) = 0.00002268

4) The probability that eight fails is

P(x = 8) = 8C8 × 0.1^(8 - 8) × 0.1^8

P(x = 8) = 0.00000001

5 0
3 years ago
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