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myrzilka [38]
4 years ago
10

Can someone help me with all this...

Mathematics
1 answer:
professor190 [17]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Option D -Parallelogram  and rhombus is the correct answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Option A -Square.</u>

In square all sides are equal and all angles are equal and each angle is equal to 90°

<u>Option B - Parallelogram </u>

In Parallelogram  opposites sides are equal and parallel. there is no right angles.

<u>Option C -Rectangle</u>

In rectangle opposites sides are equal and parallel. All angles are equal to  90°

<u>Option D -Parallelogram  and rhombus</u>

In Parallelogram  opposites sides are equal and parallel. there is no right angles.

In rhombus all sides are equal and parallel. there is no right angles.

Therefore correct answer is option D


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Step-by-step explanation:

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Enter an inequality that represents the phrase the sum of 1 and y is greater than or equal to 5.
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Sum means we are adding.  1 + y has to be greater than or equal to 5, therefore, 1+y \geq 5
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Roger's Cafe has usual daily earnings of $800. Today, the cafe earned 120% of the usual daily earnings. How much did they earn t
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Over here, I'm going to do it in two ways, and either way works, one is just easier to do out:

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8 0
3 years ago
Use multiplication or division of power series to find the first three nonzero terms in the Maclaurin series for each function.
Lunna [17]

Answer:

The first three nonzero terms in the Maclaurin series is

\mathbf{ 5e^{-x^2} cos (4x)  }= \mathbf{ 5 ( 1 -9x^2 + \dfrac{115}{6}x^4+ ...) }

Step-by-step explanation:

GIven that:

f(x) = 5e^{-x^2} cos (4x)

The Maclaurin series of cos x can be expressed as :

\mathtt{cos \ x = \sum \limits ^{\infty}_{n =0} (-1)^n \dfrac{x^{2n}}{2!} = 1 - \dfrac{x^2}{2!}+\dfrac{x^4}{4!}-\dfrac{x^6}{6!}+...  \ \ \ (1)}

\mathtt{e^{-2^x} = \sum \limits^{\infty}_{n=0}  \ \dfrac{(-x^2)^n}{n!} = \sum \limits ^{\infty}_{n=0} (-1)^n \ \dfrac{x^{2n} }{x!} = 1 -x^2+ \dfrac{x^4}{2!}  -\dfrac{x^6}{3!}+... \ \ \  (2)}

From equation(1), substituting x with (4x), Then:

\mathtt{cos (4x) = 1 - \dfrac{(4x)^2}{2!}+ \dfrac{(4x)^4}{4!}- \dfrac{(4x)^6}{6!}+...}

The first three terms of cos (4x) is:

\mathtt{cos (4x) = 1 - \dfrac{(4x)^2}{2!}+ \dfrac{(4x)^4}{4!}-...}

\mathtt{cos (4x) = 1 - \dfrac{16x^2}{2}+ \dfrac{256x^4}{24}-...}

\mathtt{cos (4x) = 1 - 8x^2+ \dfrac{32x^4}{3}-... \ \ \ (3)}

Multiplying equation (2) with (3); we have :

\mathtt{ e^{-x^2} cos (4x) = ( 1- x^2 + \dfrac{x^4}{2!} ) \times ( 1 - 8x^2 + \dfrac{32 \ x^4}{3} ) }

\mathtt{ e^{-x^2} cos (4x) = ( 1+ (-8-1)x^2 + (\dfrac{32}{3} + \dfrac{1}{2}+8)x^4 + ...) }

\mathtt{ e^{-x^2} cos (4x) = ( 1 -9x^2 + (\dfrac{64+3+48}{6})x^4+ ...) }

\mathtt{ e^{-x^2} cos (4x) = ( 1 -9x^2 + \dfrac{115}{6}x^4+ ...) }

Finally , multiplying 5 with \mathtt{ e^{-x^2} cos (4x) } ; we have:

The first three nonzero terms in the Maclaurin series is

\mathbf{ 5e^{-x^2} cos (4x)  }= \mathbf{ 5 ( 1 -9x^2 + \dfrac{115}{6}x^4+ ...) }

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Try this solution:

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