Answer:
He angered the Senate by proposing that Rome divide public lands among the returning military and their families. He replaced the elected consuls and Senate with an empire inherited by members of the ruler's family.
Explanation:
Suburb? Can you specify please?
The Fascist dictator of Italy, Benito Mussolini, sought to expand Italian colonial holdings in Africa by invading the independent country of Ethiopia. He delivered the following speech to the Italian people by radio on October 2, 1935, in an attempt to justify the act of aggression. Meanwhile, the League of Nations proved powerless to halt the invasion, all but ending its credibility as a world peacekeeping organization.
Hope this helps youu!
I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.
The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.
Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.
