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2 years ago

A point is randomly chosen in the diagram shown below.

Mathematics

2 answers:

Alex73 [517]2 years ago

5 0

D it is unlikely hope it helps

Alex17521 [72]2 years ago

3 0

D. It is unlikely! :)

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Review Word Problems ?

melomori [17]

1.) 2=50%

2.) 25% of 30,000= 7500

4 0

3 years ago

Y = (x) = (1/16)^x<br> Find f(x) when x = (1/4)

Naddik [55]

Answer:

1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

(1/16)^x

Let x = 1/4

(1/16)^ 1/4

Rewriting 16 as 2^4

(1/2^4)^ 1/4

We know that 1 / a^b = a^-b

(2 ^ -4)^ 1/4

We know that a^b^c = a^(b*c)

2^(-4*1/4)

2^-1

We know that a^-b = 1/ a^b

2^-1 = 1/2^1 = 1/2

7 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

$P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2$

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

$P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)$

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

$P(B' \cup A')$

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

$(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$

So then we can write the probability like this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')$

And using the complement rule we can do this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)$

Since A and B are independent we have:

$P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32$

And then our final answer would be:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

5 0

3 years ago

What is the range? 6 7 8 7 10

jeka94

Range= 4

Range is the highest number minus the lowest number, 10-6=4

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A ladder is leaning on a fence and it reaches up a wall 20 feet high. The fence is 10 feet from the wall and the base of the lad

ElenaW [278]

Easy just subtract 20 and 12 and its 8 the reason how i got that is because the ladder is 20 feet high and it now stands 12 feet on the fence so the fence is only 8 feet PLZ MARK ME BRAINIEST MY ANSWER IS RIGHT i have done the test ur welcome.

5 0

3 years ago