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Ivan
3 years ago
7

A city government is considering two types of​ town-dump sanitary systems. Design A requires an initial outlay of ​$405 comma 00

0 with annual operating and maintenance costs of ​$51 comma 000 for the next 14 ​years; design B calls for an investment of ​$251 comma 000 with annual operating and maintenance costs of ​$89 comma 000 per year for the next 14 years. Fee collections from the residents would again be ​$95 comma 000 per year. The interest rate is 7​%, and no salvage value is associated with either system.
Business
1 answer:
SIZIF [17.4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Desing A is a better deal as the equivalent annual cost is lower than desing B

Anywa, bot desing cost are above the city collections thus, it cannot afford the sanitary systems unless it raises taxes

Explanation:

<em><u>Desing A </u></em>

F0 405,000

operating and maintenance cost 51,000 for 14 years

Present value of the operating and maintenance cost:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C = $ 51,000.00

time = 14 years

rate = 0.07

51000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-14} }{0.07} = PV\\

PV $446,018.8673

net worth: $ 851,081.87

equivalent annual cost:

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV 851,082

time 14

rate 0.07

851081.87 \div \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-14} }{0.07} = C\\

C  $ 97,316.904

<u><em>Desing B</em></u>

F0 251,000

operating and maintenance cost 89,000 for 14 years

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 89,000.00

time 14

rate 0.07

89000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-14} }{0.07} = PV\\

PV $778,346.6507

net worth: $ 1,029,346.65

equivalent annual cost:

1029346.65 \div \frac{1-(1+0.07)^{-14} }{0.07} = C\\

C  $ 117,700.580

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Joint ventures: a. are an alternative to new ventures. b. are attractive when entry barriers are high. c. are attractive when sp
Dafna11 [192]

Answer:

Are an alternative to new ventures.

Explanation:

Joint ventures is a business arrangement between two of more organisations to form a partnership. The oganisations involved share ownership, profits, investments.

A joint venture provides access to a large number of resources and it also provides the opportunity to gain new insight and expertise.

Different organizations enter into joint venture for either the purpose of a production process or research avtivity.

3 0
3 years ago
Each machine must be run by one of 19 cross-trained workers who are each available 35 hours per week. The plant has 10 type 1 ma
Mrac [35]

Answer:

The Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

Explanation:

As the question is not complete, the complete question is found online and is attached herewith.

Let the number of product 1 to be produced is X, that of product 2 is Y and product 3 is Z

so  the maximizing function is the profit function which is given as

P=90X+120Y+150Z

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 10 type 1 machines so the total number of machine 1 hours are 40*10=400 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1, product 2 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1 and product 3 uses 1 hour of machine 1 so

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 6 type 2 machines so the total number of machine 2 hours are 40*6=240 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 3 machine hours of machine 2, product 2 uses 4 machine hours of machine 2 and product 3 uses 6 hour of machine 2 so

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 8 type 3 machines so the total number of machine 3 hours are 40*8=320 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 4 machine hours of machine 3, product 2 uses 6 machine hours of machine 3 and product 3 uses 5 hour of machine 3 so

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

Now as the machine 1 is used as 2X+2Y+Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

Now as the machine 2 is used as 3X+4Y+6Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

Now as the machine 3 is used as 4X+6Y+5Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

Now the workers are available for 35 hours so the worker available at the machine 1 is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}

That of machine 2 is given as

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}

That of machine 3 is given as

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}

As the total number of workers is 19 so the constraint is given as

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

So the Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: P=90X+120Y+150Z

Constraints:

2X+2Y+Z\leq 400

3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240

4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10

\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6

\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8

\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19

4 0
3 years ago
Prepare adjusting journal entries, as needed, for the following items. (If no entry is required for a transaction/event, select
Wewaii [24]

Answer:

Explanation:

The adjusting entries are shown below:

1. Supplies expense A/c Dr $370

       To supplies A/c                          $370

(Being supplies account is adjusted)

The supplies expense is computed by

= Supplies balance - supplies on hand

= $570 - $200

= $370

2. Insurance expense A/c Dr $190

         To Prepaid Insurance                  $190

(Being prepaid insurance is adjusted)

3. Salaries expense A/c $1,280

          To Salaries payable A/c        $1,280

(Being salary is adjusted)

The salaries expense is computed by

= Total five days × number of days ÷ total number of days

= $3,200 × (2 ÷ 5)

= $1,280

4. Electricity expense A/c Dr $270

       To electricity payable A/c          $270

(Being electricity usage is adjusted)

7 0
3 years ago
At the beginning of the year, Kimball Company had total assets of $700,000 and total liabilities of $400,000. If the total asset
svlad2 [7]

Answer:

$ 480 000

Explanation:

Assets : $700 000(@ beginning of year )

$100 000 increase (during year )

700 000+100 000=$800 000(@end of year)

Liabilities : $400 000(@ begininng of year )

$80 000 decrease (@ during of year)

400 000-80 000=$320 000 (@end of year)

Asset = Equity + Liability

Amount of owner’s equity at the end of the year (let x = owners equity)

800 000= x + 320 000

x= 800 000 - 320 000=$480 000

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3 years ago
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Career outlook is the correct answer
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3 years ago
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