Answer:
m < amc = 54°
Step-by-step explanation:
< amb and < bmc are complementary angles whose sum equals 90°.
Therefore, to find the value of 2x°, we must first solve for x.
We can establish the following equality statement:
< amb + < bmc = < amc
< 2x° + (x + 9)° = 90°
Combine like terms:
2x° + x° + 9° = 90°
3x° + 9° = 90°
Subtract 9 from both sides:
3x° + 9° - 9° = 90° - 9°
3x = 81°
Divide both sides by 3 to solve for x:
3x/3 = 81°/3
x = 27°.
Since x = 27°, substitute its value into 2x° to find m < amc:
2x° = 2(27°) = 54°
Therefore, m < amc = 54°
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9514 1404 393
Answer:
(x, y, z) = (-3, -1, 3)
Step-by-step explanation:
Many graphing calculators can solve matrix equations handily. Here, we use a combination of methods.
Use the last equation to write an expression for z.
z = 4 -x +4y
Substitute this into the second equation:
y -4(4 -x +4y) = -13
y -16 +4x -16y = -13
4x -15y -3 = 0
In genera form, the first equation can be written as ...
3x +y +10 = 0
Now, the solution to these two equations can be found to be ...
x = (-15(10) -1(-3))/(4(1) -3(-15)) = (-150 +3)/(4+45) = -3 . . . using "Cramer's rule"
y = -(10 +3x) = -(10 -9) = -1 . . . . from the first equation
z = 4 -(-3) +4(-1) = 3 . . . . . . . . from our equation for z
The solution to the system is (x, y, z) = (-3, -1, 3).
_____
<em>Additional comment</em>
Written as an augmented matrix, the system of equations is ...
![\left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}-3&-1&0&10\\0&1&-4&-13\\1&-4&1&4\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Cc%7D-3%26-1%260%2610%5C%5C0%261%26-4%26-13%5C%5C1%26-4%261%264%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
Answer:
3.4 is the answer i think
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)=1.3×10^-8
b) P(7 of the players number are drrawn)=3.33×10^-c) P(at least 6 of the players number were drawn)=1.84×10^-4
Step-by-step explanation:
Players has 8 combinations of numbers from 1-40. The outcome S contains all the combinations of 8 out of 40
a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)= 1/40/8= 1.3×10^-8
There are one in hundred million chances that the draw numbers are precisely the chosen ones.
b) Number of ways of drawing 78 selected numbers from 1-40=8×(40-7)
8×32
P(7 of the players number are drawn)=8×32/40 =3.33×10^-6.
There are approximately 300,000 chances that 7 of the players numbers are chosen
c) P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)= 32/2×(8/6) ways to draw.
P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)=P(all 8 chosen are drawn)+P(7 players numbers drawn)+P(6 chosen are drawn) = 1+ 8 x32/40/8 +[8\6 ×32/2]
P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn) = 1.84×10^-4.
There are approximately 5400chances that at least6 of the numbers drawn are chosen by the player.
Answer:
14.13 units^2.
Step-by-step explanation:
The area of a circle is found by doing pi * r^2. In this case, the diameter is 6. 6 / 2 = 3. So, r = 3.
pi * 3^2 = pi * 9 = 9pi.
This is a semicircle, so the area will be half of the whole circle.
9pi / 2 = 4.5 * pi = 4.5 * 3.14 = 14.13 units^2.
Hope this helps!
