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densk [106]
3 years ago
15

Which expression is equivalent to b^m•b^n A. b^m•n B. b^m-n C. b^m+n D. b^m÷n

Mathematics
2 answers:
blsea [12.9K]3 years ago
3 0

b^m\cdot b^n=b^{n+m}


Answer: C. b^m+n


Example

2^3\cdot2^4=(\underbrace{2\cdot2\cdot2}_{3})\cdot(\underbrace{2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2}_{4})=\underbrace{2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot2}_{3+4=7}=2^7:



seropon [69]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer is b^m+n

Step-by-step explanation:

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0.5:1

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laps:minutes

So we can find how much Ronald runs in 2 minutes, by dividing 6:12 (or 6/12) by 6. This will give you 1:2 (One lap = 2 minutes).

But you're looking for 1 minute, so with 1:2, you have to divide them by 1/2, so it will be 0.5:1.

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cestrela7 [59]

The correct statement comparing the theoretical and experimental probabilities is given as follows:

\frac{1}{4} < \frac{7}{25}.

<h3>What is a probability?</h3>

A probability is given by the <u>number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes</u>.

The theoretical probability is taken before any experiment. Since the four sections are equal, the theoretical probability is:

T(H) = 1/4.

The experimental probability is taken considering previous experiments. Out of 100 tosses, 28 landed on H, hence:

E(H) = 28/100 = 7/25.

Hence the correct statement is:

\frac{1}{4} < \frac{7}{25}.

More can be learned about probabilities at brainly.com/question/14398287

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His capital gain is the difference in the (sell - buy) prices multiplied by the number of shares (120).

120 * (85.89 - 68.24) = 120 * 17.65 = 2118

The capital gain is a short term gain (held under a year)

The amount is 2118 dollars.

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