Answer:
D) Cash 45,540 Accounts receivable 45,540
Explanation:
The journal entry is shown below:
Cash A/c Dr $45,540
To Accounts receivable A/c $45,540
(Being cash is received in respect of goods sold)
The computation is shown below:
= Sold value of supplies - the sold value of supplies × discount percentage
= $46,000 - $46,000 × 1%
= $46,000 - $460
= $45,540
Since the net method is used so we debited the cash account and credited the account receivable account.
Answer:
C. Because the couple is divorced, the IRS must apportion the deficiency between Mr. and Mrs. Pitt based on their relative contribution to their 2015 taxable income.
Explanation:
Because Mr and Mrs Pitt filed for a joint tax return in 2017 and got divorced in 2018 and IRS audited their tax return and found that they both underpaid their tax, the IRS must apportion the deficiency 50-50 between both of them based on their separate returns.
An investment vehicle known as a mutual fund pools the money of its shareholders and uses it to buy securities like stocks, bonds, money market instruments, and other assets. Professional money managers who specialize in managing mutual funds deploy the assets of the fund to produce capital gains or income for the fund's investors.
The portfolio of a mutual fund is structured and managed to meet the investment objectives stated in the prospectus. Mutual funds provide access to professionally managed portfolios of stocks, bonds, and other securities to small and individual investors. As a result, each shareholder shares in the fund's profits or losses in proportion.
Mutual funds invest in a wide range of securities, and their performance is typically measured by the change in the fund's total market capitalization.
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Answer:
The annual rate of return of the invesment will be -14,97%
Explanation:
The initial investment is 45.000 and after 5 years the value of the investment is only 20.000. Here we can see a destruction of value (20.000 < 45.000). In finance, the time takes an essential part in calculation, so through the interest rate we calculated how bad was the investment in annual terms. The formula is as follows: Final investment value=(Initial investment*(1+interest rate)^(total years)) in our case would be: 20.000=(45.000*(1+interest rate)^(5)) From this formula we got -14,97%
Question:
For an economy starting at potential output, a decrease in autonomous expenditure in the short-run results in a(n):
A. increase in potential output
B. recessionary output gap
C. decrease in potential output
D. expansionary output gap
Answer:
The correct answer is B
Explanation:
A decrease in autonomous expenditure shifts the Planned Aggregate Expenditure curve downward thus creating a lower equilibrium output.
PAE = C + Ip + G + NX
where
PAE = Planned Aggregate Expenditure
C = consumption
Ip = Investment Spending
G = Government Spending
NX = Net Export
If an economy has its output equal to its potential, this will create a reduction in short-run equilibrium output leading to a recessionary output gap.
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