Answer:
60 percent
Explanation:
Contribution margin refers to the revenue a firm derives after deducting the variable cost it has incurred.
Contribution margin = Sales - Variable costs
Contribution margin or contribution to sales ratio represents the percentage of contribution a firm earns from the sale of it's output.
It is represented mathematically as,
= 
Also, contribution margin ratio = 100 - variable cost ratio percentage.
Hence, contribution margin for three departments would be:
A = 100 - 30% = 70%
B = 100 - 40% = 60%
C = 100- 50% = 50%
This represents if sales revenue is 100, contribution margin earned is 70, 60 and 50 under three cases.
Since sales revenue in all three departments is the same, let us assume the sales revenue of a department as y.
Thus, weighted average contribution margin would be, 60 percent
Answer:
$77,500
Explanation:
The computation of the annual opportunity cost of earning his mba is shown below:
= Cost of the job + cost of other expenses + the interest earned per year
= $45,000 + $22,000 + $500
= $77,500
In order to determine we added the cost of the job, cost of other expenses, and the interest earned per year so that the annual opportunity cost could arrive
Answer:
True
Explanation:
This theory believes that an employee desires to be fully involved in the administration of an organization and is therefore committed to the course.
The employee will also want a reciprocated encouragement and motivation from the managers in terms of training opportunities and a safe working environment as they believe that the right support from the managers will boost their performance.
Answer:
E.inefficient producing divisions could pass on their inefficiencies to buying divisions in the transfer price.
Explanation:
The transfer price refers to that price in which the one firm is charging the prices from the other firm with respect to the service rendered. It is based on price charged in the market
To find out the transfer price we considered the standard cost instead of the actual cost as the divisions may be have more actual cost as compare to the standard cost which resulted into the inefficiency that impact the buying based on the transfer price
Answer:
Debit Interest Expense $17,304.80; credit discount on bonds payable $1,104.8; credit cash $16,200
Interest Expense A/c......................Dr $17,304.80
Discount on bonds payable A/c....Cr $1104.8
To Cash A/c............................Cr $16,200
Explanation:
Given the following :
Bond value = $346,096
Market rate = 10% = 0.1
Contract rate = 9% = 0.09
Par value = $360,000
Note : Semiannual payment = rate / 2
Calculating the cash value and interest expense:
Cash value :
Par value × contract rate
$360,000 × (0.09/2)
$360,000 × 0.045
= $16,200
Interest expense :
Bond value × market rate
$346,096 × (0.1/2)
$346,096 × 0.05
= $17,304.8
