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professor190 [17]
3 years ago
9

Which of the following is NOT a valid method of modifying cash flows to produce a​ MIRR? A. Turn multiple negative cash flows in

to a single negative cash flow by summing all negative cash flows over the​ project's lifetime. B. Leave the initial cash flow alone and compound all of the remaining cash flows to the final period of the project. C. Discount all of the negative cash flows to the present and compound all of the positive cash flows to the end of the project. D. Discount all of the negative cash flows to time 0 and leave the positive cash flows alone.
Business
1 answer:
faltersainse [42]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: the correct answer is A. Turn multiple negative cash flows into a single negative cash flow by summing all negative cash flows over the​ project's lifetime.

Explanation: MIRR stands for Modified Internal rate of return. If you add up all negative cash flows in just one  you are not taking into account a very important variable which is "time". It is not the same if you have a negative cash flow in 2 years than in 5 years.

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"In evaluating a recently implemented positioning strategy, a company s marketing department notes that since the strategy was p
andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer: Do nothing and continue to monitoring implementation

Explanation:

 According to the given question, in an organization the marketing department notes that the implementation of the positioning strategy in the company increases the average amount of spending as per the transaction that is reduce.

 The main objective of monitoring implementation is that it effectively monitor the ongoing process and also analyzing the given data on the basis of the given situation.  

 In this type of situation the company continues start monitoring implementation as it helps in evaluating the given data or information systematically and measuring the efficiency of the management.

 Therefore, The given answer is correct.  

8 0
3 years ago
The following data refer to Brompton Company’s ending inventory:
Leona [35]

Answer:

Unit cost

Explanation:

They ending inventory

4 0
3 years ago
Four companies computed their days' sales in inventory as follows: Company A: 47.2 Company B: 36.5 Company C: 45.1 Company D: 39
Leviafan [203]

The most efficient and effective in managing its inventory is Company B.

<h3>Who is the most efficient?</h3>

The days' sales in inventory  is a financial ratio that measures the rate at which a firm is able to sell its inventory in a given year. The lower the ratio, the more efficient a firm is in selling its inventory.

Days' sales in inventory = number of days in a period / inventory turnover

Inventory turnover =  cost of goods sold / average inventory

To learn more about financial ratios, please check: brainly.com/question/26092288

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
Assume that the full-employment level of output is $2,000 and the price level associated with full-employment output is 100. Als
mariarad [96]

Answer:

MPC = 0.4

Explanation:

Multiplier shows change in income due to change (increase) in investment, or change (decrease) in tax. It is calculated by Marginal Propensity to Consume, as follows -

Multiplier ie k = Δ Income / Δ (govt investment or tax) = 1 / (1 - MPC)

Given : ΔG  ie tax fall = 60 ; Targeted income rise = Full employment - actual output = 2000 - 1900 = 100

k = ΔY / ΔG = 100 / 60 = 1.67

k = 1 / (1 - MPC) → 1 - MPC = 1 / k → 1 - MPC = 1 / 1.67 → 1 - MPC = 0.6

MPC = 1 - 0.6 → MPC = 0.4

8 0
2 years ago
Use the model to calculate the average rate of change of profit when the ticket price rises from $200 to $300. (Round your answe
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer:

600

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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