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dezoksy [38]
3 years ago
11

A buyer will receive a utilities bill for an estimated $400 at the end of the month. At closing, the seller has used an estimate

d $100 of the bill. What should appear on the closing statement?
Business
1 answer:
MrMuchimi3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Dr Seller Account $100

Cr Buyer Account      $100

Explanation:

The property sold on 15th of the month by Mr. A to Mr. B and the utility bill received later of this month would be split between Mr. A and Mr. B. The basis for the split of the utility bills would be the share that Mr. A utilized the facilities and in this scenario, it is $100. Hence the buyer Mr. B has receivable of $100 and the seller Mr. A has a liability payable of $100 amount.

Hence the buyer will debit the bill by $100 receivable and the Seller will debit the bill owed to buyer by $100.

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The following labor standards have been established for a particular product:Standard labor-hours per unit of output 9.0hoursSta
harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

Direct labor rate variance= $69,579 unfavorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard labor-hours per unit of output 9.0 hours

Standard labor rate= $15.10 per hour

Actual hours worked= 8,100 hours

Actual total labor cost= $191,880

To calculate the direct labor rate variance, we need to use the following formula:

Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual Quantity

Actual rate= 191,880/8,100= $23.69 per hour

Direct labor rate variance= (15.10 - 23.69)*8,100

Direct labor rate variance= $69,579 unfavorable

3 0
3 years ago
Bartoletti Fabrication Corporation has a standard cost system in which it applies manufacturing overhead to products on the basi
vazorg [7]

Answer:

Total of the variable overhead rate and fixed manufacturing overhead budget variances for the month = $9,096 Unfavorable

Explanation:

Actual variable overhead rate = \frac{Actual variable overhead}{Actual Hours} = \frac{66,170}{6,400}  = 10.34

Therefore variance with the budgeted standard variable overhead

= (Standard Overhead rate - Actual overhead rate) \times Actual Hours

= ($9.70 - $10.34) \times 6,400 = -$4,096

And Fixed Overhead variance = Standard Fixed Overhead - Actual Fixed Overhead = $69,000 - $74,000 = -$5,000

Total of the variable overhead rate and fixed manufacturing overhead budget variances for the month = -$4,096 + -$5,000 = -$9,096

Since the value of variance is negative it means the expense both variable and fixed are over absorbed, which means it is unfavorable.

Total of the variable overhead rate and fixed manufacturing overhead budget variances for the month = $9,096 Unfavorable

3 0
3 years ago
A process control system costs $200,000, has a three year service life, and a salvage value of $20,000. Find the depreciation an
Advocard [28]

Answer:

A.

Depreciation expense each of the three years would be $60,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $140,000

Book value at the end of year 2 =$80,000

Book value at the end of year 3 =  $20,000

B.

Depreciation expense in year 1 =$90,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 =$60,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 =$30,000

Book value at the end of year 1 =$110,000

Book value at the end of year 2 = $50,000

Book value at the end of year 3 =  $20,000

C.

Depreciation expense in year 1 = $133,333.33

Book value at the end of year 1 = $66,666.67

Depreciation expense in year 2 =  $44,444.45

Book value at the end of year 2 = $22,222.22

Depreciation expense in year 3 = $14,814.16

Book value at the end of year 3 = $7,407.40

Explanation:

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

($200,000 - $20,000) / 3 = $60,000

Depreciation expense each of the three years would be $60,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $60,000 = $140,000

Book value at the end of year 2 =  $140,000 - $60,000 = $80,000

Book value at the end of year 3 = $80,000 - $60,000 = $20,000

Sum-of-the-year digits = (remaining useful life / sum of the years ) x  (Cost of asset - Salvage value)

Sum of the years = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 years

Depreciation expense in year 1 = (3/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $90,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 = (2/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $60,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (1/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $30,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $90,000 = $110,000

Book value at the end of year 2 = $110,000 - $60,000 = $50,000

Book value at the end of year 3 = $50,000 - $30,000 = $20,000

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2/3

Depreciation expense in year 1 = (2/3) x $200,000 = $133,333.33

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $133,333.33 = $66,666.67

Depreciation expense in year 2 = (2/3) x $66,666.67 = $44,444.45

Book value at the end of year 2 = $66,666.67 - $44,444.45= $22,222.22

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (2/3) x$22,222.22 = $14,814.16

Book value at the end of year 3 =$22,222.22 - $14,814.16 = $7,407.40

4 0
3 years ago
Why does emotional hijacking occur? a. People are hard-wired to feel emotions about a situation before they reason it out. b. Pe
sdas [7]

Answer:

a. People are hard-wired to feel emotions about a situation before they reason it out.

Explanation:

Emotional hijacking occurs when our brain's emotional processor (amygdala) bypasses our normal reasoning process.

This occurrence in terms of an emergency is a self-defence mechanism when it is necessary to act in the face of perceived danger.

Emotional hijacking occurs when there is a compulsive need to complete and action. For example answering an email, answering the phone.

It is possible to control emotional hijacking through emtional intelligence.

8 0
3 years ago
Question 8 of 20
EastWind [94]

The individual that makes the investment that has highest risk is Norville because he invested 75 percent of his portfolio in stocks.

<h3>What investment are considered high risk?</h3>

High risk investment refers to an investment that have large chance of loss of capital and high chance of a devastating loss.

Daphne invests in mutual funds which offeres low risk, Velma  and Fred spread their risk to reduce loss if any occur.

Therefore, the Option B is correct.

Read more about High risk investment

<em>brainly.com/question/2060019</em>

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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