9514 1404 393
Answer:
₹14000
Step-by-step explanation:
Let c represent the cost price, and m represent the marked price.
c × (1 +40%) = m
m × (1 -15%) - c = ₹1900
Using the first expression for m, the second equation becomes ...
1.40c×0.85 -c = ₹1900
0.19c = ₹1900
c = ₹1900/0.19 = ₹10000
Then the marked price was ...
m = 1.40c = 1.40×₹10000 = ₹14000
The marked price was ₹14000.
_____
The selling price was ₹11900.
It would be the one with the greater numerator 6/6 would be greater than 5/6
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
Apply pythagorean theorem:
ABD is a right triangle with angle ADB = 90
hence AD =
where BD = 10 because it is half of BC
AD =
= 
Answer: 28.27
Step-by-step explanation:
First, you can turn the diameter into a radius, giving you 3. Since the equation of an area in a circle is A=πr^2, you must square 3, giving you 9. Now you must multiply 9 with Pi, which is 3.14159265358, but just 3.14 for short. With that, you get about 28.27 as area.