Answer:
2.5% is the current two years interest rate
Explanation:
If the first year interest rate is 2% and expected coming year interest rate is 3% based on the hypothetical projection which is believed to be correct, then the interests rate for the two years will be the average of the interest of the two years in focus which gives us:
Current IR = IR (yr 1) + IR (yr 2) / no of years
Current IR = 2 + 3 / 2 = 2.5
Answer:
the adjustment for estimated uncollectible accounts will require
b. Debit to Bad Debt Expense for $10,000.
Explanation:
There are two primary methods for estimating bad-debt expense. The first is an income-statement approach that measures bad debt as a percentage of sales.
Accout receivable at the end_ 80000
Credit sales_______________400000
Estimate________________ 2,50%
Debit bas debt expense______10000
Answer:
$7,081.25
Explanation:
Face value = 5000
Coupon = 15% paid annually. Semi annual payment = 750/2 = 375
Time to maturity = 18 years
Interest rate = 10% compounded semi-annually
P = 375(P|A, 5%, 36) + 5000(P|F, 5%, 36)
P = 375(16.58131488) + 5000(0.17265193)
P = 6217.99308 + 863.25965
P = 7081.25273
P = $7,081.25
So, the present worth of one bond today is $7,081.25
Answer:
$50? ($150 is not the correct answer)
Explanation:
Answer:
Risk-free rate decreases
Explanation:
The CAPM formula for calculating cost of equity requires one to know the value of 3 pieces of information only:
1. the market rate of return,
2. the beta value
3. the risk-free rate.
Ra = Rrf + [Ba∗(Rm−Rrf)]
where:
Ra=Cost of Equity
Rrf = Risk-Free Rate
Ba = Beta
Rm=Market Rate of Return
From the formula
Ra = Rrf + [1.2∗(Rm−Rrf)]
Ra = Rrf + 1.2Rm - 1.2Rrf
From Ra = 1.2Rm -0.2Rrf
From the expression above, it can be seen that the lower the value of Rrf (Risk-Free rate), the higher the value of Ra.