Answer:
e. $89,337.60
Explanation:
Given that
The cost of the asset = $108,000
And, the MACRS rate is .2, .32, .192, .1152, .1152, and .0576 for years 1 to 6
So the accumulated depreciation at the end of the year 4 is
= ($108,000) × (0.2 + 0.32 + 0.192 + 0.1152)
= $108,000 × 0.8272
= $89,337.60
By multiplying the cost of the asset with the MACRS rate upto fourth year we can get the accumulated depreciation
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": perform an activity at a lower opportunity cost.
Explanation:
Comparative advantage is the ability of an individual, company, or country to produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than its competitor. Having a comparative advantage does not mean that one entity is absolutely better than another at producing a good or service. It means that it sacrifices less to do so.
Answer:
D. The tax cut can be categorized as fiscal policy and the lowering of interest rates can be categorized as monetary policy.
Explanation:
Fiscal policy is when the government uses either taxes or government spending to influence the economy.
Contractionary fiscal policy is when the government increases taxes or reduces spending.
Expansionary fiscal policy is when the government decreases taxes or increases spending.
Monetary policy are policies enacted by central bank of a country to control money supply or interest rest.
Contractionary monetary policy is reducing money supply or increasing interest rates.
Expansionary monetary policy is increasing money supply or decreasing interest rate.
I hope my answer helps you.
Answer:
Explanation:
The cost of equity can be estimated using two (2) different models:
- <em>The Dividend Valuation Model</em>
- <em>The capital asset pricing model (CAPM)</em>
<em>The Dividend Valuation Model(DVM) is a technique used to value the worth of an asset. According to this model, the value of an asset is the sum of the present values of the future cash flows would that arise from the asset discounted at the required rate of return. </em>
The model is stated below as follows
P = D(1+g)/ke-g)
<em>The capital asset pricing model (CAPM): relates the price of a share to the market risk or systematic risk. The systematic risk is that which affects all the all the economic agents, e.g inflation, interest rate e.t.c
</em>
<em>This model is considered superior to DVM. Hence, we will use the CAPM</em>
Using the CAPM , the expected return on a asset is given as follows:
E(r)= Rf +β(Rm-Rf)
E(r) =? , Rf- 2.86%, Rm-Rf - 7.00 β- 1.23
E(r) = 2.86% + 1.23× 7%
= 2.86% + 8.61%
= 11.47
%
Cost of equity= 11.47
%
Answer:
Consider the following explanation
Explanation:
Foreign tax credit allowable is the minimum of Federal Income Tax and Income tax paid in foreign country. Here, Jimenez had paid 40% (2,000,000/5,000,000) income tax in foreign country. So. Jimenez will only be eligible to take foreign tax credit of 1,050,000 i.e. 5,000,000 * 21% and there will be carryover of $950,000 (2,000,000 - 1,050,000) foreign taxes.
There is carryover tax when we cannot use the whole amount of foreign tax credit in the current year and the balance foreign tax is carried over to future years.
