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Tatiana [17]
3 years ago
12

The following cost data relate to the manufacturing activities of Chang Company during the just completed year:

Business
2 answers:
Elza [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Amount of underapplied or overapplied overhead cost for the year

$97000 - Underapplied

Schedule of cost of goods manufactured for the year

Direct Material                                3885000

Direct Labor                                      60000

Overheads                                       376000

Total Manufacturing Costs             4321000

Add Opening Inventory WIP           400000

Less Closing Inventory WIP            (700000)

Cost of Goods Manufactured         4021000

Explanation:

Amount of underapplied or overapplied overhead cost for the year

Underapplied or Overapplied overhead cost =Actual Overhead - Applied Overhead

$473000-$376000= $ 97000

Schedule of cost of goods manufactured for the year

<em>Direct Materials  Calculation  </em>                                  

Opening                                                      200000

Add Purchases                                         4000000

Available                                                    4200000

Less Closing Material                                 300000

Materials Consumed                                  3900000

Less Indirect Materials                                 15000

Direct Materials Consumed                       3885000

Evgen [1.6K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

1. The overhead is under applied - $ 105,000

2. Schedule of cost of goods manufactured

Raw materials consumed                                                         $ 390,000

Direct Labor                                                                               $   60,000

Applied manufacturing overhead                                             <u>$ 368,000</u>

Total manufacturing input                                                         $ 818,000

Add: Opening work in process                                                 $  40,000

Less: Closing work in process                                                   <u>$ ( 70,000</u>)

Cost of goods manufactured                                                     $ 788,000

Explanation:

Calculation of predetermined overhead

Estimated manufacturing overhead                                $ 376,000

Estimated machine hours                                                       23,500

Predetermined overhead rate                                         $ 16 per machine hour

Calculation of over - under application of overhead

Actual machine hours                                                          23,000

Predetermined overhead rate                                          $ 16 per machine hour

Total Overhead applied  23,000 * $ 16  =                             $ 368,000

Actual overhead                                                                       <u>$ 473,000</u>

Underapplication of overhead                                                 $ 105,000  

Calculation of materials consumed

Raw materials beginning                              $   20,000

Purchases                                                       $ 400,000

Less: Raw materials ending                          <u>$ ( 30,000)</u>

Raw materials consumed                                                         $ 390,000

Direct Labor                                                                               $   60,000

Applied manufacturing overhead                                             <u>$ 368,000</u>

Total manufacturing input                                                         $ 818,000

Add: Opening work in process                                                 $  40,000

Less: Closing work in process                                                   <u>$ ( 70,000</u>)

Cost of goods manufactured                                                     $ 788,000            

                         

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Answer:

The correct answer is the option: False.

Explanation:

To begin with, the primacy effect, in the fields of psichology and sociology is known as a cognitive bias and is part of a serial-position effect among with the recency effect. Moreover, the term<u><em> refers to the tendency to recall the information at the beginning only</em></u> of a list better that the information in the middle and at the end of that same list.

Secondly, the recency effect is the one that establishes that a person tends to recall the items at the end better that the items at the beginning or middle.

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3 years ago
Approximately how many bankruptcy claims were filed in 2014?a. 100,000b. 250,000c. 500,000d. 1.1 millione. 2.7 million
Irina18 [472]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": 1,1 million.

Explanation:

According to the U.S. Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection Act (<em>BAPCPA</em>) report of 2014, more than 900,000 bankruptcy cases were filed by individuals having by common cause consumer debts. That number of reports has been decreasing since then by year reaching by 2017 the amount of 767,721 cases.

6 0
3 years ago
Last year Carson Industries issued a 10-year, 12% semiannual coupon bond at its par value of $1,000. Currently, the bond can be
Nataly [62]

Answer:

YTM = 8.93%

YTC = 8.47%

Explanation:

P = \frac{C}{2} \times\frac{1-(1+YTC/2)^{-2t} }{YTC/2} + \frac{CP}{(1+YTC/2)^{2t}}

The first part is the present value of the coupon payment until the bond is called.

The second is the present value of the called amount

P = market price value = 1,200

C = annual coupon payment = 1,000 x 12% 120

C/2 = 60

CP = called value = 1,060

t = time = 6 years

P = 60 \times\frac{1-(1+YTC/2)^{-2\times 6} }{YTC/2} + \frac{1,060}{(1+YTC/2)^{2\times 6}}

Using Financial calculator we get the YTC

8.467835879%

P = 60 \times\frac{1-(1+YTM/2)^{-2\times 10} }{YTM/2} + \frac{1,000}{(1+YTM/2)^{2\times 10}}

The first part is the present value of the coupon payment until manurity

The second is the present value of the redeem value at maturity

P = market price value = 1,200

C = coupon payment = 1,000 x 12%/2 = 60

C/2 = 60

F = face value = 1,060

t = time = 10 years

Using Financial calculator we get the YTM

8.9337714%

4 0
3 years ago
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5 0
3 years ago
At Medallion Industries, variable cost per unit is budgeted to be $8.00 and fixed cost per unit is budgeted to be $5.00 in a per
natka813 [3]

Answer:

Total cost= $60,800

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

For 4,000 units:

Unitary variable cost= $8

Unitary fixed cost= $5

<u>First, we need to calculate the total fixed cost:</u>

Total fixed cost= 5*4,000= $20,000

<u>Now, we can determine the total cost for 5,100 units:</u>

Total cost= 5,100*8 + 20,000

Total cost= $60,800

6 0
3 years ago
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