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aalyn [17]
3 years ago
6

How do you find a common denominator?​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dennis_Churaev [7]3 years ago
4 0
You can just use the app SnapCalc it answers anything for free
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Which represents the domain of the relation {(–1, 4), (2, –3), (0, –2), (1, –3)}?
Fantom [35]
Domain means the “input” which is like when u input a number in a vending machine and then the output is you getting the chips or whatever u got from imputing the number. So the answer would be C because is is asking for the front numbers in the relation or plots of points.
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Explain why an account balance less than -40 dollars represents a dept greater than 40 dollars
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In all you will have to pay $80
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3 years ago
Write a real world problem that can be represented by the equation y+20=85
madam [21]
Hanna bought 85 candies and ate 20 of them. How many candies are left?
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use theorem 7. 4. 2 to evaluate the given laplace transform. do not evaluate the convolution integral before transforming. (writ
irga5000 [103]

With convolution theorem the equation is proved.

According to the statement

we have given that the equation and we have to evaluate with the convolution theorem.

Then for this purpose, we know that the

A convolution integral is an integral that expresses the amount of overlap of one function as it is shifted over another function.

And the given equation is solved with this given integral.

So, According to this theorem the equation becomes the

\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{ \mathscr{L} (e^{-\tau} \cos \tau ) }{s} \\\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{\frac{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1}}{s} \\\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} e^{-\tau} \cos \tau d \tau \right) = \frac{1}{s}\left (\frac{s+1}{(s+1)^2+1} \right).

Then after solving, it become and with theorem it says that the

\mathscr{L} \left( \int_{0}^{t} f(\tau) d\tau \right) = \frac{\mathscr{L} ( f(\tau))}{s} .

Hence by this way the given equation with convolution theorem is proved.

So, With convolution theorem the equation is proved.

Learn more about convolution theorem here

brainly.com/question/15409558

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
It is desired to draw blood 3 cm up a capillary tube. Assuming a contact angle of 0 degrees and a blood density of 1060 kg/m3, w
JulijaS [17]

Answer:

If we assume a temperature of 20ºc and the blood interfacial surface tension is similar to water interfacial surface tension, the diameter of the capillary tube should be 0.933mm.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Jurin law describes the height a fluid can reach in a capillary tube. This law can be written as:

H=\displaystyle\frac{2\gamma cos(\theta)}{\rho gr}

where γ is the interfacial surface tension, θ is the contact angle with the fluid, ρ is the fluid density, g is the gravity acceleration and r is the tube radius.

If we assume that the interfacial surface tension of blood and water are almost the same, γ=0,0728 N/m at 20ºc. Therefore the diameter of the tube will be:

D=2r=\displaystyle\frac{4\gamma cos(\theta)}{\rho gH}=0.933\cdot 10^{-3}m

4 0
3 years ago
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