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Illusion [34]
3 years ago
7

At Michael's Craft Store, the paiat set that you

Mathematics
1 answer:
andrew11 [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

(C) $9.36

Step-by-step explanation:

10 percent off of 26 would be 23.4, then 40 percent off of 23.4 would be 9.36

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Let v be the vector from initial point upper p 1p1 to terminal point upper p 2p2. write v in terms of i and j.
Umnica [9.8K]
I reallly dont know but that long is going to end up long
6 0
3 years ago
Find the sum 70.6+74.02+121.985=​
vova2212 [387]

266.605 is the answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

70.6 + 74.02 + 121.985 = 266.605

7 0
1 year ago
Adam uses count milk for tge dessert the canvas 13cm high and 8cm diameter using formula v=r2h what's the total of milk on the c
bonufazy [111]
If the diameter is 8 centimeters, the radius is 4.  We can use the formula v=r^2h\pi and plug in r=4 and h=13 to get v=16*13*\pi, so v=208\pi.
3 0
2 years ago
nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146

P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 2)

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146

P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X

3 0
3 years ago
Help me.... this is do in 13 min
aivan3 [116]

Answer:

d

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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