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Ganezh [65]
2 years ago
12

A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f

orward hedge. b. Using a money market hedge. c. Using a futures hedge. d. All of the above would work to accomplish this purpose. e. None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist.
Business
1 answer:
attashe74 [19]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

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aagen Inc. is a merchandising company. Last month the company's cost of goods sold was $92,000. The company's beginning merchand
Paladinen [302]

Answer:

the company purchase is $94,000

Explanation:

The computation of the total amount of the company merchanise purchase for the month is shown below:

Cost of goods sold = Beginning merchandise inventory + Purchases − Ending merchandise inventory

$92,000 = $14,000 + Purchase - $16,000

So, the purchase is

= $92,000 + $16,000 - $14,000

= $94,000

Hence, the company purchase is $94,000

4 0
2 years ago
Ritchie Manufacturing Company makes a product that it sells for $200 per unit. The company incurs variable manufacturing costs o
NARA [144]

Answer :

Break even units = 10,500

Break even amount = $2,100,000

Explanation :

As per the data given in the question,

a) Break even units = Fixed expense ÷ CM per unit b ÷ (a - c)

= ($466,000 + $269,000) ÷ ($200 - $110 - $20)

= 10,500 units

b) Break even amount = b ÷ (a ÷ c)

= ($466,000 + $269,000) ÷ ($70 ÷ $200)

= $2,100,000

Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin ÷ Selling price per unit × 100

where,

Contribution margin = Selling price per unit - variable expenses per unit

c) CM per unit Break even units = Fixed expense ÷ Cm per unit

= $735,000 ÷ $70

= 10,500 units

Break even dollars = Fixed expense ÷ Contribution margin ratio

= $735,000 ÷ 0.35

= $2,100,000

d) Contribution margin income statement:

Sales = 10,500 × $200 = $2,100,000

Less Variable expenses 10,500 × ($110+$20) = $1,365,000

Contribution margin $735,000

Less Fixed Expense $735,000

Net Operating Income = $0

6 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2021, Cori Ander Herbs granted restricted stock units (RSUs) representing 300,000 of its $1 par common shares to e
Anna [14]

Answer: $1,288,000

Explanation:

The amount should the company record as compensation expense for the year ended December 31, 2022 will be calculated thus

Number of RSUs = 300,000

Market price of shares = $14

Term of RSUs = 3 years

The compensation expense for year 1 which is 2021 will be:

= [(300,000 × $14) × 1 / 3] - $0

= $1,400,000

The compensation expense for year 2 which is 2022 will be:

= [(288,000 × $14) * 2 / 3] - $1,400,000

= $2,688,000 - $1,400,000

= $1,288,000

Therefore, the amount should the company record as compensation expense for the year ended December 31, 2022 will be $1,288,000

Note that the number of RSUs in 2022 was calculated as:

= 300,000 × (100% - 4%)

= 300,000 × 96%

= 288,000

8 0
3 years ago
ohansen Corporation uses a predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hours to apply manufacturing overhead to jobs. The
Elodia [21]

Answer:

The right solution is "$ 2.50 per DLH".

Explanation:

The given values are:

Rent,

= $ 15,000

Factor equipment's depreciation,

= $ 8,000

Indirect labor,

= $ 12,000

Production supervisor's salary,

= $ 15,000

Estimated DLHs,

= 20,000

The total manufacturing overhead will be:

= Rent+Factory's \ equipment \ depreciation+Indirect \ labor+Production \ supervisor's \ salaryOn substituting the given values, we get

= 15000+8000+12000+15000

= 50,000 ($)

Now,

The predetermined overhead rate will be:

=  \frac{50000}{20000}

= 2.50 \ per \ DLH ($)

3 0
3 years ago
Coronado Corporation acquires a coal mine at a cost of $448,000. Intangible development costs total $112,000. After extraction h
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

Dr Depletion expense 66,640

Cr Accumulated depletion 66,640

Explanation:

Coronado Corporation

Journal entry

Dr Depletion expense 66,640

Cr Accumulated depletion 66,640

Total Cost = $448,000+$112,000 =

$ 560,000

Depletion per ton

= ($560,000-$179,200)/4,480

= 85 per ton

Depletion first year = 784*85 = 66,640

8 0
3 years ago
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