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Ganezh [65]
3 years ago
12

A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f

orward hedge. b. Using a money market hedge. c. Using a futures hedge. d. All of the above would work to accomplish this purpose. e. None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist.
Business
1 answer:
attashe74 [19]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

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You sold ten put contracts on Cross Town Bank stock at an option price per share of $0.85. The options have an exercise price of
Gnoma [55]

Answer:

-$4,150

Explanation:

Calculation to determine your net profit or loss on this investment

Using this formula

Net profit/Loss=(Option price per share-Exercise price+Stock price)×100×10

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Net loss = ($0.85 - $39 + $34) × 100 × 10

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Therefore your net loss on this investment is -$4,150

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Which of the following sentences uses the term ration correctly?
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

The last one.

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Explanation:

Look up the meaning of ration and it'll make sense.

4 0
2 years ago
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