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Masteriza [31]
3 years ago
11

Presented below are data relating to labor for Verde Appliance Repair Shop.

Business
1 answer:
Andrei [34K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Total cost is $200,000 and the bill for the job is $407.5

Explanation:

The total cost would be:

Total cost = Wages + Benefits + Overhead

= $110,000 + $40,000 + $50,000

= $200,000

Cost per hour = Total Cost / Labor hours

= $200,000 / 5,000

= $40 per hour

Profit per hour required is $20 per hour

Total rate per hour = Cost per hour + Profit per hour

= $40 + $20

= $60 per hour

The bill for the job would be:

Let the bill be X

Total bill = Used part cost + Repair cost per hour (1.5 hr is 93) + Loading charges

X = $70 + 93 + .6X

0.4 X = $163

X = $163 / 0.4

X = $407.5

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Wave Fashions uses standard costs for its manufacturing division. The allocation base for overhead costs is direct labor hours.
horsena [70]

Answer:

B. $ 3,650 U

Explanation:

Wave Fashions

Actual fixed overhead $ 32,000

Budgeted fixed overhead $ 26,000

Allocated fixed overhead $ 28,350

Standard overhead allocation rate $ 6.75

Standard direct labor hours per unit 2.1 DLHr

Actual output 2,000 units

Total Fixed Overhead Variance =  Budget Variance + Volume Variance

                                                 =$ 6000 Unfav - $ 2350 Fav= $ 3650 Unfavorable

Budget Variance = Actual Fixed Overhead- Budgeted Fixed Overhead= $ 32,000- $ 26,000= $ 6000 unfavorable

Volume Variance = Budgeted Fixed Overhead- Allocated Fixed Overhead

Volume Variance= $ 26000-  ( Standard Fixed Overhead Rate * Standard Hours)

Volume Variance= $ 26000-  ( $ 6.75 * 2.1 * 2000)

Volume Variance= $ 26000- 28350 = 2350 favorable

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following methods does not help reduce marketing risks?
Nitella [24]

Answer: The following methods does not help reduce marketing risks: <u><em>Integrate vertically to insure a market or form a marketing alliance.</em></u>

Integrating a firm vertically and thereby forming a marketing alliance won't reduce the marketing risks for any organization.

<u><em>Therefore, the correct option in this case is (c).</em></u>

7 0
3 years ago
Identify the detective control below.
Darina [25.2K]

Answer:

Reconciling the bank statement to the cash control account.

Explanation:

The reason is that the detective approach is the one which helps in identification of the errors in recording the facts and figure in a control system is the detective control. In this case, bank reconciliation helps in accessing the errors and entries that are not recorded in the books of accounts hence it is a detective control.

7 0
3 years ago
The prime minister of Equalia has called for the nation's legislators to enact new legislation designed to shift the country awa
yuradex [85]

Answer:

The most likely problem to arise due to a shift from socialism to capitalism is unequal distribution of wealth.

Explanation:

In a socialist system the businesses and properties are owned by the government. The government ensures equal distribution of income and wealth in the society.

However, in a capitalist system the business and properties are owned by private individuals. People earn income on the basis of their contributions. The government does not interfere in the economy, it's the market forces control the economy.

In a socialist system income redistribution takes place from rich to poor. Such things do not happen in capitalism. So people are mostly to face the problem of unequal distribution of wealth through this shift.

3 0
3 years ago
There are 2 methods of accounting for uncollectible receivables: Direct Write-Off and Allowance methods. Describe and compare th
Kruka [31]

The direct write off does not report about the bad debt and does not use the allowance where as the allowance method uses the allowance for doubtful accounts because it provides an estimate for the same.

<u>Explanation:</u>

The allowance method speaks to the accumulation and accrual basis of bookkeeping and is the acknowledged technique to record uncollectible records for monetary bookkeeping purposes. The direct write off method is utilized just when we choose a client won't pay.

The allowance method utilizes the stipend for doubtful records to catch amassed assessments of awful obligations. The direct write-off method does not report bad debt estimates; therefore, it does not use the allowance for doubtful accounts when reporting bad debts.

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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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