A=p(1+i/m)^mn
A=6,200×(1+0.0277÷52)^(52×8)
A=7,737.59
Interest earned=7737.59-6200=1537.59
Answer:
2000
Step-by-step explanation:
6000 / 3 = 2000
He sold about <span>80% of his tickets</span>
1km is 1000 m
1000m+125m-375m=750m
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
This explanation mostly depends on what you're learning right now. The first way would be to convert this matrix to a system of equations like this.
g + t + k = 90
g + 2t - k = 55
-g - t + 3k = 30
Then you solve using normal methods of substitution or elimination. It seems to me that elimination is the quickest method.
g + t + k = 90
-g - t + 3k = 30
____________
0 + 0 + 4k = 120
4k = 120
k = 30
No you can plug this into the first two equations
g + t + (30) = 90
g + t = 60
and
g + 2t - (30) = 55
g + 2t = 85
now use elimination again by multiplying the first equation by -1
g + 2t = 85
-g - t = -60
_________
0 + t = 25
t = 25
Now plug those both back into one of the equations. I'll just do the first one.
g + (25) + (30) = 90
g = 35
Therefore, we know that Ted spent the least amount of time on the computer.
The second method is using matrix reduction and getting the matrix in the row echelon form, therefore solving using the gauss jordan method. If you would like me to go through this instead, please leave a comment.
