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Misha Larkins [42]
3 years ago
6

PLEASE help me out !

Mathematics
2 answers:
mina [271]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:6/25

Step-by-step explanation:

evablogger [386]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

6/25

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this we first need to know the probability for landing on a gray section and the probability of landing on a blue section:

Probability of gray - 6/10 or 3/5

Probability of blue - 4/10 or 2/5

Now that we know this, the question asked us to find the probability we will spin blue and than gray. We know that these events are independent of each other meaning that one outcome will not affect the probability of another outcome. Therefore in order to find the probability of blue then gray we can just multiply the probability of landing on gray (3/5) by the probability of landing on blue (2/5).

3/5 x 2/5 = 6/25

I hope this helps!

-The Business Man

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nadezda [96]
1   1   1        2
2  -3   1      -11            -2R1 + R2 → R2
-1  2  -1        8                R1 + R3 → R3

1    1    1      2
0    -5  -1   -15             R2 ⇔ R3
0    3    0     10

1    1    1      2
0    3    0     10             -R3
0   -5   -1    -15

1    1    1      2
0    3    0     10             1/3 R2
0    5    1     15

1    1    1      2                   -R2 + R1
0    1    0     10/3             -5R2 + R3
0    5    1     15

1    0    1      -4/3              
0    1    0     10/3             -R3 + R1
0    0    1      -5/3

1    0    0       1/3             
0    1    0     10/3           
0    0    1      -5/3

Therefore, x = 1/3, y = 10/3, z = -5/3
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3 years ago
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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so

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Answer

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