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Marysya12 [62]
3 years ago
15

Copernicus came up with what model where the sun was in the center of the solar system

Physics
1 answer:
scZoUnD [109]3 years ago
4 0
I believe it is "Copernican heliocentrism" :)
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1. Describe the differences in the ways the sand castle is changed by an ocean wave and by Dylan stomping on it
Snezhnost [94]

A sand castle that was changed by the ocean waves would be slowly taken away from by the waves and would just become a smooth mound of sand. If Dylan stomped on it then it would still have all of the same sand as before but in a different shape. It would also become a mound of sand but it would have all the same sand as before.


(I don't know if I was supposed to talk about fancy physics stuff so I just gave a basic explanation. I don't know if my answer is really right or not... hope it helped though :))

6 0
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Why is venus the hottest planet in the solar system
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Venus is the hottest world in the solar system. Although Venus is not the planet closest to the sun, its dense atmosphere traps heat in a runaway version of the greenhouse effect that warms Earth.

8 0
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What makes plants the beginning of the food chain
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4 years ago
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A wave moves in a rope with a certain wavelength. A second wave is made to move in the same rope with twice the wavelength of th
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

The frequency of the second wave is half of the frequency of first one.

Explanation:

The wavelength of the second wave is double is the first wave.

As we know that the frequency is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the velocity is same.

velocity = frequency x wavelength

So, the ratio of frequency of second wave to the first wave is

\frac{f_2}{f_1} =\frac{\lambda _1}{\lambda _2}\\\\\frac{f_2}{f_1} =\frac{\lambda _1}{2\lambda _1}\\\\\frac{f_2}{f_1} =\frac{1}{2}\\\\

The frequency of the second wave is half of the frequency of first one.

7 0
3 years ago
A second baseman tosses the ball to the first baseman, who catches it at the same level from which it was thrown. The throw is m
Anit [1.1K]
 <span>(a) 

Taking the angle of the pitch, 37.5°, and the particle's initial velocity, 18.0 ms^-1, we get: 

18.0*cos37.5 = v_x = 14.28 ms^-1, the projectile's horizontal component. 

(b) 
To much the same end do we derive the vertical component: 

18.0*sin37.5 = v_y = 10.96 ms^-1 

Which we then divide by acceleration, a_y, to derive the time till maximal displacement, 

10.96/9.8 = 1.12 s 

Finally, doubling this value should yield the particle's total time with r_y > 0 

<span>2.24 s

I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly.
</span></span>
6 0
3 years ago
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