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Orlov [11]
4 years ago
7

Why does the Earth have more gravitation pull than the moon?

Physics
2 answers:
coldgirl [10]4 years ago
7 0

The answer is: <em><u>The Earth has more mass than the moon. </u></em>

Nookie1986 [14]4 years ago
5 0
As accurately described by Einstein's theory of relativity, gravity is not necessarily a force, but a consequence of the curvature of space time that is caused by the uneven distribution of mass. But this could be understood more easily through Newton's Law of Universal Motion. The equation is shown below:

F = G(m₁m₂/d²), where
F is the gravitational force
G is called Newton's universal gravitation constant equal to 6.673×10⁻¹¹ N m² kg⁻²
m is the mass of the objects 1
d is the distance between the objects
 
Basing on the equation, the gravitational force depends on the mass the distance between the objects. So, when you compare the gravitational pull between Earth and moon. you do not need to include the effect of distance because, together. they have the same amount of d. So, it mainly depends on the masses. Since F is directly proportional to m, the greater the mass, the greater is the pull.

So, the answer is: <span>The Earth has more mass than the moon.</span> 
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The electric field in a region of space has the components Ey = Ez = 0 and Ex = (4.00 N/C · m) x. Point A is on the y axis at y
igor_vitrenko [27]

Answer:

   V_{b}-V_{a} = -38.72

Explanation:

Consider the axis diagram attached.

Given:

                                        Ey = Ez = 0

                                       Eₓ = - 4x N/C · m

Since electric field is in x direction, potential difference would be:

              V_{b} - V_{a} =-\int\limits^{4.40}_{0} {E_{x} } \, dx

Here we integrate between limits 0 and 4.40 which is distance between A and B along x-axis.  

              V_{b} - V_{a} = -4 \left[\begin{array}{ccc}\frac{x^{2} }{2} \end{array}\right]^{4.40}_{0}

                       V_{b}-V_{a} = -4 (9.68)\\V_{b}-V_{a} = -38.72

5 0
3 years ago
The Andromeda galaxy is the closest major galaxy to our own. Andromeda shows a distinct blue-shift of light when we analyze it.
saul85 [17]
At the present time, the only way we know of that light can get shifted
toward the blue end of the spectrum is the Doppler effect ... wavelengths
appear shorter than they should be when the source is moving toward us. 

IF that's true in the case of the Andromeda galaxy, it means the galaxy is
moving toward us.

We use the same reasoning to conclude that all the galaxies whose light is red-shifted are moving away from us.  That includes the vast majority of all galaxies that we can see, and it strongly supports the theory of the big bang
and the expanding universe.

If somebody ever comes along and discovers a DIFFERENT way that light
can get shifted to new, longer or shorter wavelengths, then pretty much all
of modern Cosmology will be out the window.  There's a lot riding on the
Doppler effect !
4 0
3 years ago
What is the MAIN reason water from the oceans turns to water vapor, and then evaporates into the air?
GuDViN [60]

This has a two word answer: sun's heat. The faster moving molecules near the ocean's surface are provided with enough energy from the sun to escape the surface they are near.

 

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Answer pls. This is for People like me with this Question . Help!!! Question 3 of 20 What happens to the electric force between
Dafna1 [17]

Answer:

It increases twice the original

8 0
3 years ago
An electron and a proton have the same kinetic energy upon entering a region of constant magnetic field and their velocity vecto
kupik [55]

Answer: rp/re= me/mp= 544 * 10^-6.

Explanation: To calculate this problem we have to consider the circular movement by the electron and proton inside a magnetic field.

Then the dynamic equation for the circular movement is given by:

Fcentripetal= m*ω^2.r

q*v*B=m*ω^2.r

we write this for each particle then we have the following:

q*v*B=me* ω^2*re

q*v*B=mp* ω^2*rp

rp/re=me/mp=9.1*10^-31/1.67*10^-27=544*10^-6

4 0
4 years ago
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