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Andrei [34K]
3 years ago
6

What is the value of x? Please explain the step process to getting to the conclusion.

Mathematics
2 answers:
natali 33 [55]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

x = 71

Step-by-step explanation:

Since this is an isosceles triangle, both sides are 21 units long, both angles are going to measure x at the bottom of the triangle.

The three angles of the triangle sum to 180 degrees

x+x+38 = 180

2x +38 =180

Subtract 38 from each side

2x+38-38 =180-38

2x = 142

Divide each side by 2

2x/2 =142/2

x = 71

olga55 [171]3 years ago
4 0

First, split the triangle into half.

So the angle 38 becomes 38/2=19.

So we know two angles in the triangle:

One is 19 degrees.

The other one is 90 degrees (marked red).

The angles in a right-angled triangle add up to 180 degrees.

So to find the x angle, we calculate it by:

180 - (90+19) = 71

(the sum of three angles) - (the sum of the two known angles) = unknown angle

So x = 71 degrees.

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Pepsi [2]

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Helpppp confused
Sveta_85 [38]

Not an expertise on infinite sums but the most straightforward explanation is that infinity isn't a number.

Let's see if there are anything we missed:

 ∞

 Σ  2^n=1+2+4+8+16+...

n=0

We multiply (2-1) on both sides:

       ∞

(2-1)  Σ  2^n=(2-1)1+2+4+8+16+...

      n=0

And we expand;

 ∞

 Σ  2^n=(2+4+8+16+32+...)-(1+2+4+8+16+...)

n=0

But now, imagine that the expression 1+2+4+8+16+... have the last term of 2^n, where n is infinity, then the expression of 2+4+8+16+32+... must have the last term of 2(2^n), then if we cancel out the term, we are still missing one more term to write:

 ∞

 Σ  2^n=-1+2(2^n)

n=0

If n is infinity, then 2^n must also be infinity. So technically, this goes back to infinity.

Although we set a finite term for both expressions, the further we list the terms, they will sooner or later approach infinity.

Yep, this shows how weird the infinity sign is.

5 0
2 years ago
Check the picture of the necessary information
denis-greek [22]
The probability would be out of 100,
in this case if it refers to the data from 2009 it would be 39:61
4 0
2 years ago
Hurry answer please !!!
horrorfan [7]

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Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Find two consecutive odd integers such that 32 more than the lesser is three times the greater​
Maslowich

Answer:

First odd number  = 13

Second odd number  = 15

Step-by-step explanation:

Let

First odd number  = 2x + 1

Second odd number = 2x + 3

According to given conditions:

32 + 2x + 1= 3 (2x + 3)

33 + 2x = 6x + 9

Taking terms with x to left and constants to right

2x - 6x = 9 - 33      (sign of transferred terms will be changed)

-4x = -24    

Dividing both sides by -4

x = -24/-4

x =6

So,

First odd number  = 2x + 1 =  2*6 + 1 = 12 + 1 =13

Second odd number = 2x + 3= 2*6 +3= 12 + 3 = 15

I hope it will help you!

4 0
3 years ago
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