Answer:
the answer is C
give the comments brainlest
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer would be m ≥ 1 or m ≤ 1/3
Answer:
1/16
Step-by-step explanation:
Each coin flip is an independent event so the probabilities are independent
P(T,H,T,H) = P(T) P(H) P(T) P(H)
= 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2
= 1/16
Answer:
(9 ) + (4 ) + (3 ) + (2 ) + (6 ) + () + (5 ) + (8 10) + (6 )
Step-by-step explanation:
How do you put 943,261,586 with base ten numbers
943,261,586 =
900,000,000 + 40,000,000 + 3,000,000 + 200,000 + 60,000 + 1,000 + 500 + 80 +6 =
(9 ) + (4 ) + (3 ) + (2 ) + (6 ) + () + (5 ) + (8 10) + (6 )
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
A direct variation equation has the following format:
Where k is a constant.
We know that y is 12 when x is -2. Thus, substitute:
Divide both sides by -2:
So, our direct variation equations is:
To find what x is when y equals -6, substitute in -6 for y:
Divide both sides by -6:
So, our answer is 1 :)