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Molodets [167]
2 years ago
15

Fedor invests $3300 in an account earning 2% interest, compounded

Mathematics
1 answer:
katen-ka-za [31]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

  c.  $3866

Step-by-step explanation:

Put 8 where n is and do the arithmetic.

  A(8) = $3300(1.02^8) = $3386

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If the cost of producing a product that sells for $50 is 120,000 plus $20.00 per piece, then how many products must be sold to b
Vadim26 [7]
Let
x--------->number of products
y1--------> <span>the cost of producing a product
y2------> </span><span>the cost of sell a product
</span><span>
we know that
y1=120,000+20x-------> equation 1
y2=50x------> equation 2

equate equation 1 and equation 2
120,000+20x=50x
50x-20x=120,000
30x=120,000
x=4000

the answer is
4000 pieces</span>
4 0
2 years ago
Solve for the value of x 3x - 9 + 12 - 6x = -18
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

x=7

Step-by-step explanation:

3x-9+12-6x=-18

now let’s put together the like terms

3-3x=-18

-3x=-21

now we divide -21 By -3

the result is

x=7

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A certain federal agency employs three consulting firms (A, B and C) with probabilities 0.4, 0.35 and 0.25 respectively. From pas
Marizza181 [45]

Answer:

(a) 0.29412 .

(b) No, the events selecting company A and incurring in cost overruns are not independent.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a certain federal agency employs three consulting firms (A, B and C) with probabilities 0.4, 0.35 and 0.25 respectively i.e.;

 P(A) = 0.4        P(B) = 0.35          P(C) = 0.25

Also, From past experience it is known that the probability of cost overruns for the firms are 0.05, 0.03, and 0.15, respectively which means;

Let CO = Event of cost overruns

P(CO/A) = 0.05 - It means probability of cost overruns given the consulting firm involved was A.

Similarly, P(CO/B) = 0.03      P(CO/C) = 0.15

(a) Probability that the consulting firm involved is company A given a cost overrun is experienced by the company is given by, P(A/CO);

We will use Bayes' theorem here calculating the above probability ;

           P(A/CO) = \frac{P(A)*P(CO/A)}{P(A)*P(CO/A) + P(B)*P(CO/B) + P(C)*P(CO/C)}

                          = \frac{0.4*0.05}{0.4*0.05 + 0.35*0.03 + 0.25*0.15} = 0.29412 .

(b) No, the events selecting company A and incurring in cost overruns are not independent because the cost overruns happens only when the consulting firm is involved and also the cost overruns will differ as we move towards another consulting firm so the chances of cost overruns will depend on the fact that which consulting firm has been involved.

8 0
3 years ago
Solve for x in the diagram below
gladu [14]

Answer:

x = 20°

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the big angle is 90°, due to the marking on the diagram. So, we make all the angles add up to 90°. Now, we can make the x stay on one side and solve for the value.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Analyze the graph of the function f(x) to complete the statement.
ozzi

f(x) is the same as y, so we can say y = f(x)

Writing f(x) < 0 means we want to find when y < 0.

Visually, we are looking at the graph when the curve is below the horizontal x axis.

This is the portion in red that I have marked in the diagram (see attached image below). I apologize for the numbers being blurry.

The left red portion is from negative infinity to -3. In terms of a compound inequality we write -\infty < x < -3 which in interval notation is (-\infty, -3). The curved parenthesis tells the reader to exclude both endpoints.

The right red portion is from x = -1.1 to x = 0.9, excluding both endpoints. So we say -1.1 < x < 0.9 which becomes the interval notation (-1.1, 0.9). This is not ordered pair notation even though it looks identical to it.

-------------

<h3>Answer in interval notation:  (-\infty, -3) \cup (-1.1, 0.9)</h3>

The "U" means "set union" which glues together the two separate intervals. Basically it's saying "x is either in the interval (-infinity, -3) or it is in the interval (-1.1, 0.9)"

5 0
2 years ago
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