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Zanzabum
3 years ago
12

Find the area between the graph of the given function and the x-axis over the given interval, if possible.

Mathematics
1 answer:
likoan [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Area = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that f(x) is a funciton as

f(x) = \frac{1}{(x-1)^2}

We have to find the area of the curve of the function above x axis between -infty and 0

Hence area required would be

\int\limits^0_{-\infty}  {\frac{1}{(x-1)^2} } \, dx

Using power rule we get

integrate value is = (x-1)^(-1)

Substitute limits

For -infty this value is 0, but for x =0 this is -1

Hence area = 0-(-1) = 1

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What is this answer? :)
sergey [27]

Answer:

the answer is b

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
You decide to go to dinner with three friends. Before the check comes, the group decides to split the check evenly. The total
NeX [460]

Answer:

You each will pay $40.35

Step-by-step explanation:

First you take the total  $134.50 and divide it by 4 which is you and your three friends.

This will give you 33.625 which is the amount each of you will pay without tip.

To find the tip you take 20% from $134.50 which will give you 26.9 and when you divide that by the four of you it will give you 6.725.

Then you take your amount 33.625 plus your tip 6.725 which will give you $40.35.

The total you all will pay will be $161.40 this is the total $134.50 plus the tip $26.90.

Hope this helped.

4 0
2 years ago
The length of a banquet table is 4 feet longer than 6 times its width. If the perimeter is 78 feet, what are the dimensions of t
harina [27]
Hello,
2(l+w)=78
Divided 2 from both side
2(l+w)/2=78/2
l+w=39 feet

l=6w+4
Replace l with 6w+4

6w+4+w=39
7w+4=39
Subtract 4 from both side
7w=35
Divided 7 from both side
w=5 feet
l=6w+4
l=6(5)+4
l=30+4
l=34 feet. As a result, the length of the rectangle is 34 feet and the width of rectangle is 5 feet. Hope it help!
7 0
4 years ago
I need the answer in 1 minute
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

4 Units.

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLZ HURRY IT'S URGENT!!
Jet001 [13]

Answer:

OPTION C: 60%

Step-by-step explanation:

Chances of raining the next day + Chances that it will not rain = 100%

One of them should definitely be true.

So, if the chance of it raining tomorrow is 40% then there is 60% chance that it will not rain tomorrow.

This can also seen as follows:

Probability of rain tomorrow + Probability of no rain = 1

Given Probability of rain tomorrow = 40% = $ \frac{40}{100} = \frac{2}{5} $

Probability of no rain tomorrow = 1 - Probability of rain tomorrow

⇒ Probability of no rain = 1 - $ \frac{2}{5} $

⇒ Probability of no rain = $ \frac{3}{5} $

Expressing it as percentage: $ \frac{3}{5} \times 100 $ = 60%.

8 0
3 years ago
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