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dalvyx [7]
3 years ago
15

Can 36/10 be changed into a decimal

Mathematics
2 answers:
Svet_ta [14]3 years ago
7 0
Yes it can be changed to a decimal
36 divided by 10= 3.6
3.6 ×10= 36
Bingel [31]3 years ago
4 0
Yes it can.
Divide 36 by 10.
Move the decimal one place to the left. That gives you 3.6
36/10 = 3.6
Hope that helps! :)
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Luis deposited $500 into his savings account with a simple interest rate of 3%. He wants to keep his deposit in the bank until h
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Which statement is true regarding the graphed functions?
Vladimir79 [104]

let's analyze each case to determine the solution

<u>case 1)</u> f(0) = 2 and g(–2) = 0

For x=0-----> find the value of f(0) in the graph-----> f(0)=4

For x=-2-----> find the value of g(-2) in the graph-----> g(-2)=0

therefore

the statement of the case 1) is false

<u>case 2)</u> f(0) = 4 and g(–2) = 4

For x=0-----> find the value of f(0) in the graph-----> f(0)=4

For x=-2-----> find the value of g(-2) in the graph-----> g(-2)=0

therefore

the statement of the case 2) is false

<u>case 3)</u> f(2) = 0 and g(–2) = 0

For x=2-----> find the value of f(2) in the graph-----> f(2)=0

For x=-2-----> find the value of g(-2) in the graph-----> g(-2)=0

therefore

the statement of the case 3) is true

<u>case 4)</u> f(–2) = 0 and g(–2) = 0

For x=-2-----> find the value of f(-2) in the graph-----> f(-2) is greater than 12

For x=-2-----> find the value of g(-2) in the graph-----> g(-2)=0

therefore

the statement of the case 4) is false

therefore

<u>the answer is</u>

f(2) = 0 and g(–2) = 0-------> this statement is true


6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help idk thisssss
Alekssandra [29.7K]
ANSWER
0.073 \% = 0.00073


EXPLANATION

Recall that,

\% =  \frac{1}{100}


That is why
100\%
is equivalent to
1.





This implies that,


0.073\% = 0.073 \times  \frac{1}{100}






This is the same as,


0.073\% = \frac{0.073}{100}


When we are dividing by
100
we move the decimal point backwards two times.


This implies that,

0.073\% = 0.00073


6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Consider rolling two fair dice one 3-sided the other 5-sided
Ne4ueva [31]

Since the dice are fair and the rolling are independent, each single outcome has probability 1/15. Every time we choose

1\leq x\leq 3,\quad 1\leq y \leq 5

We have P(X=x)=\frac{1}{3} and P(Y=y)=\frac{1}{5}, because the dice are fair.

Now we use the assumption of independence to claim that

P(X=x, Y=y) = P(X=x)\cdot P(Y=y) =\dfrac{1}{3}\cdot\dfrac{1}{5} = \dfrac{1}{15}

Now, we simply have to count in how many ways we can obtain every possible outcome for the sum. Consider the attached table: we can see that we can obtain:

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This implies that the probabilities of the outcomes of W=X+Y are the number of possible ways divided by 15: we can obtain 2 and 8 with probability 1/15, 3 and 7 with probability 2/15, and 4, 5 and 6 with probabilities 3/15=1/5

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3 years ago
3. Han has a fish tank that has a length of 14 inches and a width of 7 inches. Han puts in
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2 years ago
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