Answer:
Rate of change of y is 
Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:
answer choice c is correct
:)
hope that helped. <3
<em>bye now! </em>
<em>have a nice day too <3.</em><u><em> k bye</em></u>
Answer:
65/32
Step-by-step explanation:
For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
<span />
Answer:
7b-389
Step-by-step explanation:
This is the polynomial in standard form. Hope this helps!