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NARA [144]
3 years ago
10

Which sums are equal to ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
maksim [4K]3 years ago
8 0
I don not see the questions?
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Hope is the coach of the Wilson High School girls' soccer team. There are 3 minutes left in the game they are currently playing,
NISA [10]

To answer this question, we need to find the winning probability in either case.

Probability = no. of outcomes / total no. of possible outcomes

<u>When Hope pulled her defender :</u>

Total no. of games = 9

No. of games won = 3

Winning probability = 3/9 =1/3

<u>When Hope left her defender :</u>

Total no. of games = 10

No. of games won = 6

Winning probability = 6/10 = 3/5

We know that , 1/3 < 3/5.

So, Hope should not pull her defender, as the winning probability is better when Hope left her defender.

Answer : A. Hope should not pull her defender.


3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following can be used to calculate the volume of water inside the fish bowl?
Lunna [17]

The volume of a sphere can be calculated as

V=\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3

Where r is the radius of the sphere

We want to calculate half of the volume, then we must divide that volume by 2

V^{\prime}=\frac{1}{2}\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3

Now we must find the radius of our sphere, the segment AB is the diameter of the sphere, and the radius is half od the diameter, then

r=\frac{AB}{2}=\frac{12}{2}=6

Let's put it into our equation

\begin{gathered} V^{\prime}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)(\pi)(r)^3 \\  \\ V^{\prime}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)(\pi)(6)^3 \end{gathered}

The problem says to use

\pi\approx\frac{22}{7}

Then

V^{\prime}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)\left(\frac{22}{7}\right)(6)^3

Final answer:

The formula that can be used to calculate the volume of water inside the fish bowl is

V=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)\left(\frac{22}{7}\right)(6)^3

8 0
1 year ago
The quotient of s and three
Doss [256]

Answer:

s/3

Step-by-step explanation:

The quotient means you divide the two values.

7 0
3 years ago
, find a1 and d. 34, 40, 46, 52, 58, 64
yulyashka [42]

Answer:

a1 = 34, d = 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

a1 = the first term = 34.

To find d subtract: 2nd term - first term ,  third term - second term and so on.

d = 40 - 34 = 6.

Also 46-40 = 6

WE get the same value 6  for the other given terms.

6 is added to each term to get the next term

5 0
4 years ago
Suppose a shipment of 400 components contains 68 defective and 332 non-defective computer components . From the shipment you tak
Alona [7]

Answer:

The standard deviation for the number of defective parts in the sample is 1.88.

Step-by-step explanation:

The sample is with replacement, which means that the trials are independent, and thus, the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, with p probability.  

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

E(X) = np

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}

68 defective out of 400:

This means that p = \frac{68}{400} = 0.17

From the shipment you take a random sample of 25.

This means that n = 25

Standard deviation for the number of defective parts in the sample:

\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{25*0.17*0.83} = 1.88

The standard deviation for the number of defective parts in the sample is 1.88.

6 0
3 years ago
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