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Angelina_Jolie [31]
3 years ago
12

What is the area of each piece of paper that Jodi is cutting out

Mathematics
1 answer:
Reptile [31]3 years ago
6 0
The simplest (and most commonly used) area calculations are for squares and rectangles. To find the areaof a rectangle multiply its height by its width. For a square you only need to find the length of one of the sides (as each side is the same length) and then multiply this by itself tofind the area.
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i need to subtract decimals. i have the answers I just need the work. problems 3.12- 2.52, 3.6-1.8 and 4.1 - 27. thank you
Snowcat [4.5K]

A way you can show work is just not use the commas then subtract then put the commas in when you're done. And, if the bigger number isn't as big or has as many numbers behind the decimal as the first one, add a zero at the end.

7 0
3 years ago
Expand, and simplify the following expressions a. (2x+y)(x+y) + (2x-y)(x+y)​
tankabanditka [31]

Step-by-step explanation:

2x²+2xy+yx+y²+2x²+2xy-yx+y²

2x²+2x²+2xy+2xy+yx-yx+y²+y²

2x²+2x²+2xy+2xy

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7 0
2 years ago
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You purchase a $120 jacket that is on sale for 20% off. How much do you pay for the jacket?
Butoxors [25]

Answer:

$96

Step-by-step explanation:

Good deal!

6 0
2 years ago
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he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2  

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

P(k)= \frac{0.2^ke^{-0.2}}{k!}

a)

In this case, we are looking for P(0)

P(0)= \frac{0.2^0e^{-0.2}}{0!}=e^{-0.2}=0.9801=98.01\%

So, the probability that a car has no flaws is 98.01%

b)

Ten cars have 100 square feet of plastic panel, so now the mean is 100*0.02 = 2 flaws every ten cars.

Now P(k) is the probability that 10 cars have k flaws and  

P(k)= \frac{2^ke^{-2}}{k!}

and  

P(0)= \frac{2^0e^{-2}}{0!}=0.1353=13.53\%

And the probability that 10 cars have no flaws is 13.53%

c)

Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0
3 years ago
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Find the value of x.<br> x = 2<br> x = 3<br> x = 33<br> x = 52
yanalaym [24]

Check the picture below.

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