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3 years ago

X+y= 2

Mathematics

2 answers:

Free_Kalibri [48]3 years ago

8 0

11 is the answer to the question

bija089 [108]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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(a) An angle measures 140 . What is the measure of its supplement? (b) An angle measures 36 . What is the measure of its complem

Lesechka [4]

A: 40 because supplements add up to 180
B: 54 because complements add up to 90

6 0

3 years ago

An apprentice productively working a 40-hour week earns more wages and is worth considerably more to the local union and the ind

Anni [7]

Apprentice B earns $120 because Apprentice A's wage is $4/hour (160 divided by 40), and the question states that they are paid at the same scale. Therefore 4 x 30 = $120.

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3 years ago

If we sample from a small finite population without replacement, the binomial distribution should not be used because the event

seropon [69]

Answer:

5/4324 = 0.001156337

Step-by-step explanation:

To better understand the hyper-geometric distribution consider the following example:

There are 100 senators in the US Congress, and suppose 60 of them are republicans so 100 - 60 = 40 are democrats).

We extract a random sample of 30 senators and we want to answer this question:

What is the probability that 10 senators in the sample are republicans (and of course, 30 - 10 = 20 democrats)?

The answer using the h-g distribution is:

$\large \frac{\binom{60}{10}\binom{100-60}{30-10}}{\binom{100}{30}}=\frac{\binom{60}{10}\binom{40}{20}}{\binom{100}{30}}$

Now, imagine there are 56 senators (56 lottery numbers), 6 are republicans (6 winning numbers and 50 losers), we extract a sample of 6 senators (the bettor selects 6 numbers). What is the probability that 4 senators are republicans? (What is the probability that 4 numbers are winners?).

As we see, the situation is exactly the same, but changing the numbers. So the answer would be

$\large \frac{\binom{6}{4}\binom{56-6}{6-4}}{\binom{56}{6}}=\frac{\binom{6}{4}\binom{50}{2}}{\binom{56}{6}}$

Now compute each combination separately:

$\large \binom{6}{4}=\frac{6!}{4!2!}=15\\\\\binom{50}{2}=\frac{50!}{2!48!}=1225\\\\\binom{50}{6}=\frac{50!}{6!44!}=15890700$

and now replace the values:

$\large \frac{\binom{6}{4}\binom{50}{2}}{\binom{56}{6}}=\frac{15*1225}{15890700}=\frac{18375}{15890700}=\frac{5}{4324}$

and that is it.

If the decimal expression is preferred then divide the fractions to get 0.001156337

6 0

3 years ago

Help omg if so thank you.

Goshia [24]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

49*5/7

=35

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

(-36)^1/2= a.) 1/6 b.) -6 c.) no real number

hjlf

It's suppose to be -18 so I guess no real number....

4 0

3 years ago