Answer:
The correct answer is: <em>understand individual employee needs and create work environments that respond to them.</em>
Explanation:
According to ISO 45001, it is necessary for the company to determine:
- Interested parties, in addition to the employees that are relevant to the Occupational Health and Safety Management System.
- The relevant needs and expectations of employees and other interested parties.
- Which of these needs and expectations are, or could become, legal requirements and other requirements
Answer:
The correct answer is: includes manufacturing costs plus selling and administrative expenses.
Explanation:
The CVP analysis works as a tool for planning and decision making, as it indicates the relationship of costs, sales and price, also identifies the scope and magnitude of the economic problems facing a company as well as its possible solution, also It allows you to perform a sensitivity analysis by examining the impact of various levels of prices or costs on profits.
Costs refer to the fixed and variable costs incurred by the company. Each business has fixed and variable costs. Fixed costs are usually the general expenses incurred by the company, regardless of the number of products it produces or sells. Variable costs change depending on the business activity. CVP (cost volume utility) analyzes typically use the variable cost per unit of product manufactured and sold.
The bankruptcy public record is deleted from the credit report either seven years or 10 years from the filing date of the bankruptcy, depending on the chapter you filed. Chapter 13 bankruptcy is deleted seven years from the filing date because it requires at least a partial repayment of the debts you owe
Answer:
7.31%
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Annual dividend paid, D0 = $1.48
Dividend growth rate, g = 2.2% = 0.022
Current stock price per share = $29.60
Now,
Current price of share = D1 ÷ (r - g) .........(1)
Here,
r is the required rate of return
D1 = dividend at year 1 = D0 × (1 + g)
= $1.48 × (1 + 0.022)
= $1.51256
Therefore, from (1) we get
$29.60 = $1.51256 ÷ (r - 0.022)
or
(r - 0.022) = 0.0511
or
r = 0.0511 + 0.022
or
r = 0.0731
or
r = 0.0731 × 100% = 7.31%
Answer:
The correct answer is 8.679%.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Face value (F) = $1,000
Bond value (B)= $955
Time (t) = 18 years
Yield (r) = 9.2%
First we calculate the coupon payment:
Let coupon payment = C
then,
B = C × 
By putting the value, we get
$955 = C× 
$955 = C × 8.64 + 205.11
C = 86.79
So, Coupon Rate = Coupon Payment ÷ Face value
= 86.79 ÷ 1000
= 0.08679
= 8.679%
