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Mashutka [201]
3 years ago
12

How manet times dose 50 go into 1,000

Mathematics
2 answers:
strojnjashka [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

20 times

Step-by-step explanation:

1,000 divided by 50 will be 20 try using lone division :)

Gnoma [55]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

20 times

Step-by-step explanat

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4.
Gnoma [55]

Answer:

1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
2 years ago
A certain oil refinery keeps intermediate products in 8 tanks. There are 15 pumps of varying capacity that can be assigned to pu
Furkat [3]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This question is permutation problem. permutations is the number of arrangements or orderings within a constant group.

The formula for permutation is given as

nPk = n!÷(n-k)!

Where n is the number of objects, k is the is the number of objects we want to chose from.

Solution to the question

15P8 = 15!÷(15-8)!

= 15!÷7!

= 15×14×13×12×11×10×9×8×7×6×5×4×3×2×1÷7×6×5×4×3×2×1

= 259459200

4 0
3 years ago
Which expression is equivalent to this polynomial?<br> (4x + 3)(3x - 8)
abruzzese [7]

Answer:

I resolve the expression

(4x+3) (3x-8)=12x2-32x+9x-24

12x2-23x-24

the polynomial (4x+3) (3x-8) is equivalent a the expression 12x2-23x-24

7 0
3 years ago
What can be visualized as a series of vertical lines around the Earth ​
Ilya [14]

Answer:

roads?

Step-by-step explanation:

i think thats right

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The test scores of five students for the first two test of the semester are shown in the table below.
Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Take test score from Test 1 and add them all together and divide by the number of test

ex) 77+82+69+85+93=406

    406/5= 81.2

Then repeat with Test 2

ex) 75+76+71+68+72=362

    362/5= 72.4

Therefore the MAD of Test 1 > MAD of Test 2

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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