Given:
<span>stockton company adjusted trial balance december 31
cash 7,530
accounts receivable 2,100
prepaid expenses 700
equipment 13,700
accumulated depreciation 1,100
accounts payable 1,900
notes payable 4,300
common stock 1,000
retained earnings 12,940
dividends 790
fees earned 9,250
wages expense 2,500
rent expense 1,960
utilities expense 775
depreciation expense 250
miscellaneous expense 185
To determine the total assets, we only have to consider the following:
</span>cash 7,530
accounts receivable 2,100
prepaid expenses 700
equipment 13,700
<span>accumulated depreciation <u> (1,100) </u>
</span>Total assets: 22,930 CHOICE D.
NET INCOME:
fees earned 9,250
<span>wages expense (2,500) </span>
<span>rent expense (1,960) </span>
<span>utilities expense (775) </span>
<span>depreciation expense (250) </span>
<span>miscellaneous expense <u> (185)</u>
</span><span>Net Income 3,580
LIABILITIES AND S.H.E
</span>accounts payable 1,900
<span>notes payable 4,300 </span>
<span>common stock 1,000 </span>
<span>retained earnings 12,940 </span>
<span>dividends (790)
</span>Net Income <u> 3,580</u>
TOTAL LIABILITIES & SHE 22,930
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Net income = 50,000
Preferred dividend = 2,000
Outstanding common stock:
= (40,000 × 2) + (10,000 × 6/12 × 2)
= 80,000 + 10,000
= 90,000
2016 basic earnings per share:
= (Net income - Preferred dividend) ÷ Outstanding common stock
= (50,000 - 2,000) ÷ 90,000
= 48,000 ÷ 90,000
= $0.53 per share
Therefore, the 2016 basic earnings per share is $0.53.
Answer:
Explanation:
1.Amount to be paid Annually to fell leasing Company = $10,000.
Incremental rate of borrowing = 11%
Lease Period = 5 yrs.
2. Value of lease equipment as on 1st October 2017 i.e., date of lease.
= 10,000 * (PVOA) = (11* for 5 years)
=10,000 * 3.6959 (using -PVAF table)
= $ 36,959
Factors are used according to the table of PVAF
3.Lease liability as on 31-12-2017
= 10,000 * PVAD (11 * 4 years) [since 4 years in these)
= 10,000 * 3.44371
= $ 34,437.10
Lease liability as on 31st Dec 2018
= 10,000 * PVAD (11% 3 years) (still 3 yrs left as on 31-12 -2018)
= 10,000 * 2.71252 = $ 27,125.20
Answer:
Explanation:
Pretax cost of debt is the annual rate(YTM) of the bond. Using a financial calculator, input the following to calculate it;
N = 5*2 = 10
PV = -(95% *10,000,000) = -9,500,000
Coupon PMT = (6%/2)*10,000,000 = 300,000
FV = 10,000,000
then compute semiannual rate; CPT I/Y = 3.604%
convert to annual rate = 3.604*2 = 7.21%(this is the pretax cost of debt)
After tax cost of debt is calculated because interest payable on debt has tax shield. The formula is as follows;
Aftertax cost of debt = pretax cost of debt (1-tax)
AT cost of debt = 7.21% (1-0.40)
AT cost of debt = 4.33%
Answer:
The correct answer is C
Explanation:
The concept of the invisible hand, is the concept in which the unobservable market force, helps the supply and the demand of the goods to reach at equilibrium in a free market.
As per this concept, the best method for society in order to encourage the jobs creation and the production of products demanded by consumers would be to allow the personal freedom entrepreneurs to follow their self interest.
