If you roll 2 dice what are the odds of getting both even numbers

Convert 52km to miles

zimovet [89]

32.311 miles........

4 0

2 years ago

A line with a slope of – 5 passes through the points (3,n) and (4, – 5). What is the value of n?

masha68 [24]

Answer:

n = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

slope = y2-y1/x2-x1

so

-5 -n / 4-3 = -5

-5 -n /1 =-5

-5 - n = -5

n = 0

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Carla and Rob left a 20% tip after having lunch at a restaurant. The amount of the tip was $6. Carla's lunch cost $15. Write an

Rufina [12.5K]

Answer:

20/100 = 6/15

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0

3 years ago

Just number 2 please i’ve tried many times... i need an equation and the answer :)

Triss [41]

Keller collected $62.48 and Izzy collected $47.83 and J collected $19.98

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1; Assume that J collected $x, Keller collected $y and Izzy collected $z. All three combined collected $125.95, so

x + y + z = 125.95, take this as equation 1.

From the given data, the following equations can be formed.

y = 42.50 + x or x = y - 42.50 take this as equation 2 and

y = 15 + z, take this as equation 3.

Step 2; Now we must determine x and y in terms of z, so that equation 1 can be solved (the equations can be in terms of any term x, y or z.)

Rearranging equation 2 and 3,

we get 15 + z so x = y - 42.50, y = x = 15 + z - 42.50, take this as equation 4,

If we substitute equations 4, 2 in 1, we get

(15 + z - 42.50) + (15 + z) + z = 125.95,

3z - 12.5 = 129.95,

3z = 142.45, so z = 47.833.

Substitute z = 47.833 in equation 3.

y = 15 + 47.8333 = 62.4833.

Substitute y = 62.4833 in equation 2,

x = 62.4833 - 42.50 = 19.9833.

Rounding of the values of x,y, and z to nearest hundredth we get

x = $19.98, y = $62.48 and z = $47.48.

7 0

3 years ago

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

a

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

b

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

c

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

d

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

7 0

3 years ago