Look at the following sum. 1 + 1⁄2 + 1⁄4 + 1⁄8 + 1⁄16 + 1⁄32 + 1⁄64. . .

2 answers:

5 0

Because this is an infinite sequence, we can use the following formula:

a1/r

a1 is the first number in the sequence, r is the rate of change.

To find r, we do the second value divided by the first. So

1/2 / 1 = 1/2
r = 1/2

Now we plug in to our equation.

1 / 1/2

= 2

So your sum is 2

I hope this Helps!

bija089 [108]2 years ago

3 0

1.96875
that is the correct answer

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See the attached image for the explanation.

Hope this helps! Please make me the brainliest, it’s not necessary but appreciated, I put a lot of effort and research into my answers. Have a good day, stay safe and stay healthy.