Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
D= {-4,1,0,3}
R={4,2,3,2}
Easiest way is to find out first how many she runs in a week. For that you can multiply the number of hours she runs a weekday by 5. (3.2*5) That should be 16. Now, since you want to know how many miles she will run in a span of 6 weeks you must multiply it by 6 now. That is 96. Since you know that, let's move on to the weekends. It is 1.5 per weekend day or 3 per weekend. Now you have to multiply 3 by 6 because you want to know for six weeks. Since you have both your numbers now, 18 and 96, you can add them to make a final of 114.
1 hour = 60 mins 1 mile = 60 mins 3/4 = 45 mins. 2/3 = 40 mins. So 45+ 40 = 1 hour and 25 mins.
Answer:
t = 6 years
Step-by-step explanation:
Use the simple interest formula: i = prt, where p is the principal, r is the interest rate as a decimal fraction, and is the elapsed time, in years.
Here we want to know how long it will take for the interest alone to reach $449.40. We first solve i = prt for t, obtaining t = i/(pr).
Here, the length of time is t = ($449.40) / (0.06*$1498.00). This works out to
t = 5.9947, or approximately 6 years.
t = 6 years
