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3 years ago

Can someone please explain this?

Mathematics

2 answers:

kipiarov [429]3 years ago

8 0

Your answer would be the second option, -π.

This is because as x approaches 0, cos(x + π) approaches cos(π) = -1. On top, x + π as x approaches 0 will tend to π, so you end up with π/-1. This simplifies to -π.

I hope this helps! Let me know if you have any questions :)

trapecia [35]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

-pi

Step-by-step explanation:

as x equals zero, g(x) = -3.14 = -pi

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