Answer:
First choice:

Explanation:
<em>The probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</em> is calculated as the product of both probabilities, taking into account the fact that the second time the number of cards in the hat has changed.
In spite of it is said that the cards are drawn at once, since it is stated a specific order for the cards (first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card) you can model the procedure as if the cards were drawn consecutively, instead of at once.
<u>1. Probability that the first is a man's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 20 (the 20 business card)
- Number of man's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/20 = 1/2.
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<u>2. Probability that the second is a woman's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 19 (there is one less card in the hat)
- Number of wonan's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/19.
<u>3. Probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</u>
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That is the first choice.
You can test this using the equation: a^2 + b^2 = c^2.
24^2 + b^2 = 60^2
576 + b^2 = 3,600
b^2 = 3,024
b = 54.999
Since b is not a whole number, the side lengths do not form a Pythagorean triple.
Brainliest answer please!!!
The probability that x >17 will be found as follows:
the z-score is given by:
z=(17-15.2)/0.9=2
Thus
P(X>17)=1-P(x<17)=P-(z=2)
=1-0.9772
=0.0228
A. 72 degrees (i hope this helped)
Answer:
6:10.
Step-by-step explanation:
4 : 40 + 1 : 30 = 5 : 70
because 60 minutes make an hour and on the minutes side has more than 60, we have to minus 60 minutes and carry the one hour to the other side which is the Hour side.
5 : 70........ minus 60 to get 10.
5 + 1 to get 6.
therfore it is 6 : 10