Answer:
I believe it’d be 5
Step-by-step explanation:
AH || BC
AH || FG
AH || DE
AB || HG
CD || FE
Answer:
f(2)=0
Step-by-step explanation:
f(2)=2x-4
2(2)-4
4-4
0
Answer:
puc provar, però no sé lemme see
If you divide 8 and 32 by 8 you would get 1/4 because 8 goes into 8 1 time and 8 goes into 32 4 times... Hope this helps