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Zarrin [17]
3 years ago
6

(-5,-1), m=-5/4 I'm using that as a fraction

Mathematics
1 answer:
inessss [21]3 years ago
6 0
Point slope form
y-y1=m(x-x1)
m=slope
(x1,y1) is a point

(-5,-1)
x1=-5
y1=-1
m=-5/4

y+1=-5/4(x+5)
y=-5/4x-29/4
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12x + 10x what is the awnser
KIM [24]

Answer:

22x?

Step-by-step explanation:

is there more to this question? if not its just simple addition and then add "x" at the end

7 0
2 years ago
A muffin recipe, which yields 12 muffins, calls for 2/3 cup of milk for every 1 3/4 cups of flour. The same recipe calls for 1/4
djyliett [7]

Answer:

4\dfrac{3}{8} cups of flour

Step-by-step explanation:

A muffin recipe, which yields 12 muffins, calls for 2/3 cup of milk for every 1 3/4 cups of flour.

Then this recipe, which yields one muffin, calls for

\dfrac{2}{3}:12=\dfrac{2}{3}\cdot \dfrac{1}{12}=\dfrac{1}{18}

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1\dfrac{3}{4}:12=\dfrac{7}{4}\cdot \dfrac{1}{12}=\dfrac{7}{48}

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Thus,

this recipe, which yields a batch of 30 muffins, calls for

\dfrac{1}{18}\cdot 30=\dfrac{5}{3}=1\dfrac{2}{3}

cups of milk for every

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cups of flour.

4 0
3 years ago
If students’ scores were normally distributed and the mean was 200 with a standard deviation of 40, then what is the probability
Sonja [21]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

The empirical rule tells you that 68% of the standard normal distribution is within 1 standard deviation of the mean. The distribution is symmetrical, so the amount in the lower tail is (1 -68%)/2 = 16%.

Since the number you're interested in, 240, is one standard deviation above the mean (200 +40), the percentage of interest is the sum of the area of the central part of the distribution along with the lower tail:

  68% + 16% = 84%.

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Ostrovityanka [42]

Answer:

7 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

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